WI both Charles V and Ferdinand I had been born as women?

Just an idea I was thinking about: WI both male sons of Philip the Handsome and Joanna (Charles V and Ferdinand I) had been born females? Philip would be the father of six princesses, and the Habsburgs would be extinct after his death. But who would become Emperor? And what would happen to Spain?
 
Francois I of France quite possibly may have won the election of 1519. Understandably, the longterm implications of this would have been immense.

As for the Hapsburg lands, they might well have been subdivided between the princesses, although a war of inheritance is more likely, in some form at least. And the crafty old Ferdinand V of Aragon would be a key player in all of it up until his death in 1516, you can bet on it (and Francois I probably, too, since the time would be ripe for him to swallow up the rest of the Burgundian inheritance). You'd probably also see frantic remarrying on Emperor Maximilian's part (even more so than in OT), as he'd be desperate to secure a male heir. On a side note, it'd be interesting, actually, if he ended up siring more daughters, and just making things more complicated; or, if he did get a son, you can bet that it'd only increase the confusion, since there'd be a debate on whether or not Philip's daughters or his son had a greater claim to the Austrian inheritance.

In the long run, you'd see a weaker Spain, probably a much stronger France (until the wars of religion anyway, assuming they still take place), a more disunited Italy (perhaps with more papal power centered there, though that was already far into decline at this point, even before the sack of Rome; French intervention in Italian affairs would also go on for some time) and a very different reformation/counter-reformation I'd imagine. There'd also be no war of Spanish succession and probably no Thirty Years War, depending on how the spread of Protestantism factors in.
IMO, Francois might have been a better candidate to reconcile with Luther than Charles V, had he been emperor, but that's open to interpretation.
As for the HRE, you'd either be looking at a more unified version under Francois, if he managed to centralize it more, or (more likely) a much more de-centralized and independent entity, as its leader would lack any lands in Germany (though Francois's desire to go to war to acquire the rest of Burgundy might also factor in).

How's that for a start?
 
Well, in Spain there could not be butterflies till Ferdinand's death. He would discuss the power of Philip the Handsome and become the true ruler of Castile fter Philip's death in 1506, assuming the lack of a male heir doesn't convince him to spent more time with his wife instead of hunting and playing the ball, and his premature death happens in schedule. Ferdinand did not have any problem to rule in the name of his daughter and the fact he was counted then and later as Ferdinand V of Castile tells very much in this subject.

So as in OTL, Ferdinand would marry again in 1505 and fail to produce a male heir due to his old age. He would invade anyway Navarre and unite it with Castile, too.

Then, in 1516, Ferdinand dies and Joan the Mad becomes full Queen of Castile again, but not of Aragon.

-First, who would be chosen as Ferdinand's heir in Aragon? That's an enygma. Either the Courts accept a woman for the first time in 400 years, or choose someone else. I suppose that Ferdinand would try to convince the kingdom notables to go with his daughter but if he is unable to do such he could recommend Ferdinand, Duke of Calabria as a second choice. The Duke of Calabria was a close friend of Ferdinand II and a son of Frederick IV of Naples, so Aragon's rights in Italy would be covered in the case France would try to dispute them again (and I think she would).

-In Castile, you see the same conflict of nobles vs. cities exploding again and both parties racing for control over the Queen. Whoever is victorious would press the Queen to marry again (if she had not done that under Ferdinand's advise before) and produce a male heir. If she isn't able to do such then she rules in name only till her death in 1555, governing a weaker Castile in which another civil war to take control of her would not be rare. Who knows what would be the effects on the Americas (which would be Castilian by law). Then after 1555 another woman takes the throne, this time Leonor of Austria, eldest daughter of Joan and widow of Manuel I of Portugal. She rules only 3 years, and then passes the throne in 1558 to a third woman, her only surviving daughter Mary, which would live till 1577.
That's almost a century of women in an independent Castilian throne, likely unstability and a very much weaker Castile (and Spain) than in OTL.

-And what of Navarre? It's under Castilian occupation and part of its population still calls Ferdinand II "the Usurper". The 1516 anti-Trastamara uprising is going to be harder to beat than in OTL. The next year the claimant queen Catherine passes away and the rights to the throne go to her son Henry II: French noble, personal friend of King (and possibly HRE) Francis I and strong advocate of the full restitution of the Kingdom of Navarre. Evidently, France will invade. And will be likely successful.
 
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How's that for a start?

It seems nice! However, who would be the probable opponent of Francis I in the Imperial Election? I was thinking about the Duke of Bavaria (after all, he was a nephew of Maximilian. Also, I think that once it becomes clear that Philip would have no male heir Maximilian would try to play with this, trying to marry his granddaughters to someone strong enough to oppose the French influence.


Of course, we are assuming that things would go just as IOTL in relation to descendents and marriages. But I think that around 1510, when Philip realizes he would have no male heir, different marriages would be arranged, and due to butterflies other consequences might happen. For example, IOTL Eleonor had a son from Manuel who died in 1520 (Carlos), while Maria (born in 1521) survived. Due to butterflies ITTL she could have a surving son and a stillborn daughter instead. Spain would have a king (Carlos I) from the House of Aviz then. It would be interesting to see how much Portugal would try to influence the Castillian policies in this case.
 
Another failure of mine was to not realize in time that Eleanor would be Duchess of Burgundy after her father's death. Assuming, again, that Philip dies in 1506 as IOTL - this isn't a given, but I though it was implicit in your open message. If Philip presses to produce a son and as a result survives pass 1506, he is likely to achieve that and as a result there would be a younger *Charles with a different personality. But then the TL would be a "Philip the Handsome lives longer", not a "All Philip the Handsome's sons are born girls". Therefore I'll not assume further changes before Ferdinand II's death.

So as Eleanor married in 1518 in OTL, it's likely that the marriage would not be with Manuel I of Portugal as she would have been the ruler of Flanders (under regency) for nearly 10 years by that time.
 
So as Eleanor married in 1518 in OTL, it's likely that the marriage would not be with Manuel I of Portugal as she would have been the ruler of Flanders (under regency) for nearly 10 years by that time.

Indeed. It probably means that she would be married to a powerful German noble, which also would probably be the opponent of Francis I for the Imperial crown. Maybe Bavaria? Or Frederick III, Elector of Saxony?
 
Bavaria looks like a great step towards an Austria-united Germany.

So we have Eleanor I of Burgundy and Austria + William IV of Bavaria in Germany. William beats Francis in the Imperial election, but without the Spanish veteran arquebusers maybe he loses Milan to France.

In Aragon, I'll stick for separation with the election of the Duke of Calabria as Ferdinand III, probably married with one of Ferdinand's granddaughters (Carla herself? :p). In OTL he married Ferdinand II's widow, Germaine of Foix! :eek:

Joan the Mad is queen of Castile again, but dominated by some local strongman. She marries someone else.

Manuel I of Portugal marries a different daughter of Joan. Possibly Fernanda.
 
Manuel I of Portugal marries a different daughter of Joan. Possibly Fernanda.

Well, he might just not remarry. IOTL Eleanor should marry his son, John III, but Manuel considered her so attractive that he decided that she should be HIS wife and not his son's.

So Fernanda would probably marry John III (unless she were so pretty as Eleanor and Manuel wants her too).:D
 
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