WI Aquitaine passes to Alphonse VI of Castille?

If William VIII of Aquitaine had no son (in OTL a son was born in 1071) and his daughter Agnes had a son with Alphonse VI of Castille is it possible that upon the death of William VIII in 1086 Aquitaine passed to castillian control? With Alphonse VI acting as a "regent" for his infant son
What happens next? How is the french King reacting to that?
Could Alphonse VI used the resources from Aquitaine to fund an early reconquista?
 
It depends on whether the French king dredges up the Salic Law to prevent the passage of Aquitaine to the King of Castile. Most feudal monarchies had a rule that their vassals' inheritance was not automatic, but had to be approved by the king, in order to prevent the king's fiefs from passing into the hands of their enemies. Also, if Alfonso does get Aquitaine, then you have both the King of England (William I) and the King of Castile as vassals to the King of France through their French holdings.
 
It depends on whether the French king dredges up the Salic Law to prevent the passage of Aquitaine to the King of Castile. Most feudal monarchies had a rule that their vassals' inheritance was not automatic, but had to be approved by the king, in order to prevent the king's fiefs from passing into the hands of their enemies. Also, if Alfonso does get Aquitaine, then you have both the King of England (William I) and the King of Castile as vassals to the King of France through their French holdings.

Well if Philip I gets to have 2 Kings as his vassals i dont think he would block Alphonse VI from getting Aquitaine...
 
The fact that the King of England was the vassal of the King of France in Normandy and Anjou was the immediate cause of two centuries of bloody and devastating war between France and England. It's important to remember that the Anglo-Norman and Angevin kings of England were vassals of the King of France only in the matter of the territories they held in France; in the matter of England they were the equals of the King of France, and this tension led to friction ultimately resulting in war that rolled across France and greatly weakened the French throne.
 
It depends on whether the French king dredges up the Salic Law to prevent the passage of Aquitaine to the King of Castile. Most feudal monarchies had a rule that their vassals' inheritance was not automatic, but had to be approved by the king, in order to prevent the king's fiefs from passing into the hands of their enemies. Also, if Alfonso does get Aquitaine, then you have both the King of England (William I) and the King of Castile as vassals to the King of France through their French holdings.


Would the king be able to stop it? Iirc Kings of france had little power in that era outside the immediate vicinity of Paris.

Alfonso's biggest problem in Acquitaine will be with his vassals, not his suzerain.
 
I tend to think that if this happened, it would be the historical end of France as a significant power on its own.
 
It depends on whether the French king dredges up the Salic Law to prevent the passage of Aquitaine to the King of Castile. Most feudal monarchies had a rule that their vassals' inheritance was not automatic, but had to be approved by the king, in order to prevent the king's fiefs from passing into the hands of their enemies.
Actually, it is a misconception that the French used Salic Law in the middle ages. Phillip of Valois took the throne, establishing a precedent that the French throne could not be passed to or through women. This went against established custom, where territories could be passed to and through women. Later (the mid 15th century) Salic Law was found in after not being used for a long time, and compiled at the request of the French king. It was then used as law, and looking back people always think that Salic law was used after the Direct Capetians died out.
Also, legal precedent to take Aquitaine did not necessarily make it be taken (I.e Phillip II Augustus only took Anjou and Maine, Aquitaine was too far to really take control of) so even if the French kings could take Aquitaine legally, that doesn't mean they would.
Scipio
 
In fact, Aquitane specifically passed through the female line at several points. Most notably when Eleanor married first the King of France, then the King of England, with Aquitane passing to the English line.
 
In fact, Aquitane specifically passed through the female line at several points. Most notably when Eleanor married first the King of France, then the King of England, with Aquitane passing to the English line.

Thats the point... If Agnes d'Aquitaine had a son with Alphonso VI of Castille then Aquitaine would have passed in castillian control... Idk if France could recover from this loss...
 
My point wasn't that the Salic Law was uniformly applied; it clearly wasn't. But the French monarchy would probably be looking for an excuse not to have Aquitaine pass to the Spanish, just as in 1316 they used the excuse of the Salic Law to prevent Edward III from becoming King of France. Having Henry II acquire Aquitaine through Eleanor is just barely tolerable, since he's already a vassal of the King of France through Anjou, Maine, and Normandy; acquiring a second royal vassal in Alfonso would be, I think, just too much of a headache.
 
If i remember correctly William VIII was the last male of his family... All his brothers were deceased and they were either childless or had daughters (again i cant remember... correct me if i am wrong)
If Philip I invokes the Salic Law in order to prevent Aquitaine's fall in castillian hands who gets the lands then?
Anyway i doubt that Alphonso would sit around waiting for the french King to decide... He would have pressed his claim hard...
 
Actually, it might be Philip himself, since his direct ancestor Hugh the Great was granted the duchy of Aquitaine by Louis IV, but never managed to conquer it, as William III was the de facto overlord of the province and resisted. Philip could make a compelling argument that with William's male line extinct, the duchy now rightfully returns to him.
 
My point wasn't that the Salic Law was uniformly applied; it clearly wasn't. But the French monarchy would probably be looking for an excuse not to have Aquitaine pass to the Spanish, just as in 1316 they used the excuse of the Salic Law to prevent Edward III from becoming King of France. Having Henry II acquire Aquitaine through Eleanor is just barely tolerable, since he's already a vassal of the King of France through Anjou, Maine, and Normandy; acquiring a second royal vassal in Alfonso would be, I think, just too much of a headache.

OTOH both vassals with their own kingdom could also work against each other. Furthermore it would mean that the power is more divided, so unlike the OTL Plantagenets no one would control more or less half of the kingdom.
 
OTOH both vassals with their own kingdom could also work against each other. Furthermore it would mean that the power is more divided, so unlike the OTL Plantagenets no one would control more or less half of the kingdom.

Unless William I and Alphonse VI negotiated an alliance... Alphonse could betrothe his infant son with William's daughter (dont remember if by 1070s was any of them eigible for marriage...)
 
IIRC Salic Law only really applied to Northern French lands (ie the lands held directly by Salian Franks and their descendants) and in practice only meant the Kingship of France rather than his vassals.

There is also the difference between a vassal and a fief to consider.
A vassal holds lands in his own right but agrees that his lord is superior to him and that he promises to assist him in his duties.
A fief however holds lands for the King and as such can be stripped of them.
Albeit it's a slight difference and disappears in the later Middle Ages.

As Aquitaine is a mere vassal of the King of the Franks its own inheritance laws apply - essentially male preferred primogeniture; cognatic inheritance rather than agnatic. As has been pointed out the lords of the Aquitanian lands allowed women to inherit and pass their inheritance through them.

With Aquitaine under initial Castilian "control" (it'd likely go to a younger son sooner or later) it may hold its own against the North and perhaps be reconsidered a Kingdom.
 
If Aquitane is able to seperate (strong backer from the south, likely alliance with England and/or Burgundy if an attempt is made to annex it to the crown due to the precedent set), could we see a fracturing of France. Tolouse would be alligned more closely with Aquitane anyway, while Burgundy was largely independent for this period and England (with or without Anjou and Maine) could in this situation essentially pull Normandy and a few northern satellites out from France. If Anjou and Maine are with Normandy to start with, we'd most likely have Brittany splitting off as well. Flanders is pretty much lost anyway, and this leave France with only Champagne of the original six great vassals (Toulouse, Aquitane, Flanders, Burgundy, Champagne and Normandy)
 
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