Why wasn't the title Imperator totius Hispaniae ever revived?

So I was looking for a good Spanish Character to play on CKII and ended up stumbling onto the title Imperator totius Hispaniae or Emperor of all Spain and was surprised. I had no idea that any Spanish ruler, besides Charles V, used the title of Emperor or Empress. So if the title existed why did none of the rulers of Unified Spain use the title? I mean was there a particular reason or was the title forgotten? I could see Charles V revived the title for his son Philip, after he failed to get Philip elected Holy Roman Emperor. Or perhaps Philip after he became King of Portugal. Or even Isabella and Ferdinand could revive the title after the conquest of Granada.
 
Firstly Charles V was Holy Roman Emperor, which by no means is an Iberian (specific) title (though in theory it was the highest secular title in Western (Catholic) Christianity).

A better candidate for reviving such a title would have been the 'Catholic Kings' Ferdinand & Isabella, still that is unlikely too, since the title fell already in disuse in medieval. In part it comes down to the fact, that (in part) the value of a title follows from recognition by peers (and for Catholics also the Papacy). In fact the last holder ruled in the 12th century.
 
I remember this

This guy
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alfonso_VII_of_León_and_Castile
held all of the existing regnal titles and thus had himself crowned Emperor

That was something quite unique as the different kingdoms kept breaking off again.

Ferdinand was King of Aragon, Isabella Queen of Castile, and jointly they set themselves up as rulers of Spain, they didn't rule singularly. In theory, Aragon's succession was separate to Castile's and if Ferdinand's son by his second wife had lived, then Aragon would have broken away again.

As it was the joint succession went to Joana (later the Mad) and into the Habsburgs, and I guess Charles V was the first one for whom the title resolved securely to being Spain, and not Castile and Aragon?

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 
Firstly Charles V was Holy Roman Emperor, which by no means is an Iberian (specific) title (though in theory it was the highest secular title in Western (Catholic) Christianity).

A better candidate for reviving such a title would have been the 'Catholic Kings' Ferdinand & Isabella, still that is unlikely too, since the title fell already in disuse in medieval. In part it comes down to the fact, that (in part) the value of a title follows from recognition by peers (and for Catholics also the Papacy). In fact the last holder ruled in the 12th century.


Firstly I'm very much aware Charles was Holy Roman Emperor. That doesn't change my observation that he was the only monarch of Unified Spain to use the title of Emperor, it just wasn't associated with any of the Iberian Kingdoms. As for Isabella and Ferdinand, that was my other idea. Maybe they petition the Pope for the title, instead of being the most Catholic monarchs, they become Emperor/Empress? Also random fact, Isabella and Ferdinand bought the rights of one of the last byzantine heirs, so though they never used the title "Emperor/Empress of the Romans" they seemed to be interested in being Imperial Sovereigns.

I remember this

This guy
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alfonso_VII_of_León_and_Castile
held all of the existing regnal titles and thus had himself crowned Emperor

That was something quite unique as the different kingdoms kept breaking off again.

Ferdinand was King of Aragon, Isabella Queen of Castile, and jointly they set themselves up as rulers of Spain, they didn't rule singularly. In theory, Aragon's succession was separate to Castile's and if Ferdinand's son by his second wife had lived, then Aragon would have broken away again.

As it was the joint succession went to Joana (later the Mad) and into the Habsburgs, and I guess Charles V was the first one for whom the title resolved securely to being Spain, and not Castile and Aragon?

Best Regards
Grey Wolf

Personally I was thinking Charles V would be the best bet. As for when the best opportunity would be either after Francis I was captured or after Rome was sacked. At those times neither Charles' most powerful rival nor the church could object to the use of the title. Though another time would be after the plan to make his son Emperor failed. That way the Spanish Branch would be equal to the Austrian Branch, both Emperors. Though personally I think another good bet would be his son Philip II, after he inherited Portugal. The title translates as Emperor of all Spain but it looks more like Emperor of all Hispania. After 1580 the entire Peninsula was united for the first time so it would be the best time to assume the title.
 

yourworstnightmare

Banned
Donor
My guess is that the Spaniards were just not that interested in calling themselves emperors. They'd have to be crowned by the Pope (since they're Catholics), find some way to tie their their right to use the title to the Romans (if they really wanted it they could make something up, as legit as all the other emperors) and start to convince everyone that they are the real emperors and all the others are fakes. A little too bothersome.
 
As other have said, one of the reasons is that it had come in disuse to the times of Ferdinand and Isabel, and it was never widely recognised. On the other hand, I think another key point is that using such a self-made title only had sense when the christian kingdoms were disunited. Creating this title, what Alfonso VII and Urraca intended was to send a message to the other christian monarchs of Iberia (and perhaps not only christians) in the context of their common political games, asserting a self-proclaimed hegemony and suzerainity. Of course, those suppoused to get the memo didn't give a shit.
 
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