Why was the secession of Central America from Mexico so peacful?

Why? Did it have more to due with the personalities of the people in charge at the time, or something else?
 
The Mexicans overthrow a person trying to set himself up as the new king or emperor of Mexico and practiced what they preached, I guess. They let the Central Americans vote on whether or not to stay and besides Chiapas they did not. Might just have been the upper classes who could vote or something though. I am not too knowledgable. The area wasn't that valuable back then anyways, probably. But since Central America had not been part of the same kingdom/colony as Mexico during the Spanish Wmpire, I would say there was no real emotional or administrative reasons to keep them on.
 
The Mexicans overthrow a person trying to set himself up as the new king or emperor of Mexico and practiced what they preached, I guess. They let the Central Americans vote on whether or not to stay and besides Chiapas they did not. Might just have been the upper classes who could vote or something though. I am not too knowledgable. The area wasn't that valuable back then anyways, probably. But since Central America had not been part of the same kingdom/colony as Mexico during the Spanish Wmpire, I would say there was no real emotional or administrative reasons to keep them on.

Mesoamerica was part of the Viceroyalty Newspain (except Panama)
 
What about Florida, post-American Revolution?

Indeed. The point is, new Spain was large and a lot broke separately. Heck, Chile broke from Peru while Bolivia, Paraguay, and multiple regions that now make up Argentina all went independent on their own. There had been a policy going for centuries where only Castilians could go to the New World and that they had to be kept in the cities so as to not create their own power bases. Therefore there was a good deal of regionalism, probably based upon the main cities and their economic satellites in the hinterlands.
 
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