(Sorry if this is in the wrong forum, I just think that the POD would need to be pre-1900, for this to work. If this is the wrong forum, can the mods move it please? Thanks.)

As I understand it, (I'm not British myself, so I apologize if I'm wrong,) the UK is in a weird state, where it is considered a nation-state, with a common national identity (British), but being comprised of the four home nations, (England, Wales, Scotland, N. Ireland), all of which have their own distinct national identities as well, and the UK has *mostly survived to the modern day, only recently experiencing upswings in Scottish and Welsh nationalism. Why is it considered a single nation-state, as opposed to Austria-Hungary for instance?

Austria-Hungary is an example of a multinational state which did collapse spectacularly at the end of WWI. I'm asking this question to try and understand what was the difference between the two, because they were both comprised of distinct nations, had linguistic divides, religious divides, etc. So why did one live, and the other die? How much of this is based on simply what ended up happening? Like A-H is stereotyped as the unstable behemoth because it did collapse, while the UK isn't just because it survived.

I've tried to do some research on my own, and I've come up with 3 reasons, and I'd be happy if anyone who knows more about the subject than me would be able to tell me if I've got it right, or if I'm barking up the wrong tree here:

*Yes, I know about Ireland, I'll get to that in a sec.

1. Moderate Nationalism
As far as I can tell (I might have missed something), there just never were any radical organizations formed (that lasted anyhow) in Wales or Scotland, like the Young Czechs, or the Irish Republican Brotherhood, for the radical nationalists to meet, to organize, and to eventually spur on any popular discontent towards national independence.

2. No "Disloyal Nations"
With Austria-Hungary, they had the problem of having to deal with Slavic ethnicities within the empire who were more loyal to the pan-Slavic ideals propagated by their enemies, Russia and Serbia, than they were to the empire, and their politicians were intentionally sabotaging the war effort, and the Slavs needed to be controlled with an iron fist. (The Romanians too, though they're not slavic.)

Or at least that's what they told themselves.

As I understand it, the Czechs, the Serbians, the Ukrainians, etc, were just as loyal as anyone else in the empire, and that the problems that Austria-Hungary suffered, like mass desertions were from other reasons, like war-weariness and economic issues, nothing to do with the nationalists. But the government assumed it was, and assumed the Slavs would be a fifth column in A-H, and persecuted them heavily during the war years, and categorized them as such, as Czechs, Serbs, Ukrainians, etc, even if they never identified as such, and all of this (accidentally) helped to forge these new national identities, where only weak ones existed before.

While with Britain, (with the exception of the Bretons, in friendly France,) all of the Celtic nations were in the UK, there was no hostile Celtic Central Power, propagating pan-Celtic ideology, and so they *never worried about a Celtic fifth column sabotaging the British war effort.

*Obviously, for a variety of reasons, not including Ireland. Which probably contributed to why they were the only one to break away from the UK.

3. Four years in hell.
The obvious one. Austria-Hungary was starved into submission over four years, with more than a million dead. Facing military defeats on all fronts, they asked for an armistice, and the Allies replied with a "Fuck you. The empire must die. The nations of central Europe must be freed from oppression!" and they would not accept an armistice unless A-H was dismantled. So predictably, the nationalists, that the Allies had recognized, dismantled the empire.

As we know, Britain never faced that. There was plenty of unrest, yes, but British soldiers came back victorious to a mostly intact, and reasonably well-fed country. (Even then, the Irish declared independence, because of what had happened during the war, the Catholic opposition, the Easter Rising, the Conscription Crisis, etc.)

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Is this an accurate analysis? Have I understood the difference between Britain and Austria-Hungary correctly?

If so, then what would it have taken to flip the two nations fates? To have the UK be remembered in pop history as a chafing behemoth, doomed to be torn apart by nationalism, and Austria-Hungary, (or whatever it's called in TTL,) to be considered a odd sort of nation-state, united under a common... let's say Danubian identity, but for all the different peoples of the empire to have their own distinct identities like Romanian, or Serbian, or Austrian, but also Danubian? In the same way we have Scots and Welsh and English, but they can all identify as British.

Thanks.
 

kholieken

Banned
UK is single nation-state because Welsh and Scottish nationalism is very weak until 19th century. British nationalism is much stronger.

Austria-Hungary main problem is Hungarian (Magyar) and German nationalism, both want special place in AH government. There also no overarching Habsburg nationalism (unlike UK british nationalism).
 
As to the "disloyal nations" bit - I do need to mention the Jacobites (which weren't an ethnic movement, granted - it was a deposed royal dynasty and its supporters wanting to get back into power). But the Scottish Highlanders were definitely treated as disloyal by the British government for a while - Highlander dress was banned for a time, for instance.

Similarly, whilst Wales was legally an equal part of England after 1542, the Welsh people weren't really treated equally. Were it not for the fact that Welsh translations of the bible existed, it's quite likely that the Welsh language would be classed as "definitely endangered" (more like Irish Gaelic before its more recent revival) rather than as "vulnerable" - if not extinct.

In addition, there is the matter that Britain democratised sooner than Austria did. Admittedly, it was rather reluctant - for instance, the passing of the Reform Act 1832 was far more due to "we don't want what happened in France and Belgium happening hear" and "I don't much like the thought of being strung up on a lamp post" than out of sympathy towards the disenfranchised.
 
the Allies replied with a "Fuck you. The empire must die. The nations of central Europe must be freed from oppression!
AIUI it wasn't the Allies. It was a certain American president and a certain French president. The Sixtus Affair came just before Clemenceau took office but his predecessor had been "open" to the talks. IIRC Clemenceau was the one who put a stop to it.


@Fehérvári
 
Well there is also the fact that other than north Ireland , the United Kingdom did its process of reform , language unification , had englinazed the higher ups of Wales and Scotland, the religious movement aligned ,had consolidated itself .
The other one had a language problem ,germanization was a real problem because it was not only Austria language , had diversified religions , conquered regions that it had no reason to conquer , reacted rather than reform , had bipolar economic plans .
Either one of those is a serious problem if after that you start a world war you doom yourself .
After that there is the fact the USA because of electoral reasons wanted the dissolution and the French had to be pacified after being told no about punishing further Germany .
So there is that .
Maybe if they sued for peace earlier maybe an Austrian truncated empire would have survived.
 
England's also much, much more populous and economically wealthy than the other constituent nations (36 million of the 43 million Brits in 1911 were English) whereas Germans AND Magyars combined made up only around 40% of Austria Hungary, so the English could push around the other nations without as much pushback as the Germans or Maygars would face in their respective nations. Plus the political efforts to impose English on the other nations to form a unitary state with a strong enough identity to resist Catholic incursions (e.g. early imposition of English on Wales in the 1500s, for example), and Anglicisation proceeded politically, socially, and economically for centuries without too many bumps.

And there's also the matter of industrialization, wherein the remote countryside emptied into urban centers and the nation ends up much more interconnected (faster travel and thus more opportunities to mix culturally), economically dependent on other regions, and with a more cohesive identity due to more standardized systems like education, policy, and the like. The UK was the cradle of industrialization while Austria-Hungary was still largely agrian (1914 saw the UK with 12% of its male population working agriculture vs 60% for Austria Hungary). Rural areas will necessarily have stronger regional identities than urban centers will.
 
The UK was the cradle of industrialization while Austria-Hungary was still largely agrian (1914 saw the UK with 12% of its male population working agriculture vs 60% for Austria Hungary). Rural areas will necessarily have stronger regional identities than urban centers will.
About this it's a little unfair to compare one with the other considering that there were two impediments , one the Hungarian half of the empire wanted and maintained an agrarian society to maintain power and the Austrian part had to import and remain aligned to germany
 
The United Kingdom was/is the nation state of English-speaking Protestants. Back then the Scots language was generally included within the "English-speaking" part, so the core demographic enjoyed a dominant position in pretty much all of Great Britain. In this sense, you can draw parallel between Great Britain and the (broadly-defined) Archduchy of Austria (AKA the so called Austrian Hereditary Lands).

Ireland was politically/economically dominated by English-speaking Protestants, but the majority of the island's population was Catholic. Albeit these Catholics were also overwhelmingly English-speaking, historical circumstances allowed regional identity to overwrite/dismiss this particular unifying factor between the people of Ireland and Great Britain. The closest parallel we can draw here is between Ireland and the Lands of the Bohemian Crown. Just like Ireland, Bohemia had a long history of distinctness/separateness, and its real unification with its "dominant" neighbour was relatively recent (1801 for Ireland, 1804 for Bohemia). What the English-speaking Protestants were to Ireland, Catholic Germans-speakers were to Bohemia: A certain minority that dominated both politics and the economy, and had one unifying and one separating factor with the region's majority. In the Bohemian case, religion was the unfying factor and language the separator, the inverse of the Irish situation, but the core of the matter was still similar.

And this is kinda where the similarities between Austria and the UK end. Galicia was kinda like Canada, a largely left alone periphery dominated by the elites of the majority ethnicity (Poles=English-speaking Canadians) that also had one sizeably minority group (Ruthenians=French Canadians). Unlike the English-speaking (British) Canadians however, the Poles of Galicia had no real attachment to the rest of Austria besides religion (no common language, little to no common history), and at the same time Poles had a long history of their own and Polish identity was already extremely well-developed even prior the Partitions of the PLC. All in all, Galicia's periphery status and strong autonomy made the Poles loyal but their own strong identity also made them disattached from a hypothetical overarching Austrian identity.

Notice that I didn't say anything concerning Hungary yet. The reason for this is very simple: Because Hungary is a completely different subject. Let me explain. Just like Bohemia, Hungary also became a country ruled by the Habsburg dynasty in 1526-'27. Unlike in Bohemia however, the Habsburgs never really managed to suppress the power of the nobility and implement absolutism. The country had very strong "consitutionalist" traditions (comparable to England) and powerful (and numerous) nobility to back it up, which allowed the country to keep its own separate traditional institutional structures. For all intents and purposes, Hungary was a constitutional monarchy where the power of the monarch was considerably limited. For example: Without it passing through the diet first, no new law could be introduced/implemented in Hungary. Hungary was never really integrated into the centralising Habsburg state structure. For this reason, Hungary didn't become part of the newly declared Austrian Empire in 1804 either. Hungary continued to be its own thing, not even the military occupation of 1849-'60 could change that. The closest Hungary became to being legally integrated into a centralised Habsburg state was with the Compromise of 1867, where the Hungarians conceded to give up a portion of the country's sovereignty to institutionally well-defined central authorities. Hungary lost autonomy in 1867, but ironically people tend to think the opposite of this happened. In summary, the population of Hungary never developed an Austrian identity because Hungary itself was never Austrian.

Going into the development of Hungarian and non-Hungarian identities within Hungary would make this already long post twice as long as it currently is, so I hope you don't mind I don't delve into it here. Still, I hope this rambling of mine was atleast somewhat helpful for understanding ethnic and national identity within the Habsburg Monarchy.
 
The biggest difference between the UK and Austria-Hungary is the lack of an "Imperial core". England, and the English people, was the UK's imperial core: English was the most widely spoken language of the state; the English region was the home of the vast majority of the nation's industry and commerce; and the population was more then double that of Scotland, Wales and Ireland combined. In contrast, Austria-Hungary desperately lacked such a thing: German was widely spoken, but it wasn't a favored language among the nationalities; national industry was spread across much of the Cisleithanian half, and not dominated by either the German-Austrians or the Hungarians; and the population of Austria and Hungary combined was 42%. So there was no central, singular language or culture to dominate the rest of the nation, like most modern nation-states. The Austrian monarchy was essentially a 16th century composite monarchy for its entire existence, which worked for a long time, but its issues were seriously showing by the early 20th century.
 

dcharles

Banned
Goes down to population. England is much larger by population than Scotland or Wales. Austria was a minority in its own empire.
 
Austria-Hungary was an empire made of many countries united by their allegiance to a certain lineage, meanwhile since Irish independence the UK is England.
 

So what I've understood is that the UK developed a "British" identity and nation-state because the English are being polite and don't want to acknowledge that it's basically an English nation-state with some extra bits welded on the side. /s Because of how demographically and economically dominant England is among the nations of the British Isles. (Which is why I assume the West Lothian Question isn't a big issue there, because everyone just assumes that the UK Parliament is the English Parliament, right?)

And that it would be nigh-impossible for something similar to happen to Austria-Hungary, because there was no ethnic group that comprised even a quarter of the population, let alone a majority, and if you changed up the ethnic composition so one ethnic group was dominant, like by making it smaller, or having a different composition, or different ethnogenesis, etc, it wouldn't really be A-H anymore, and just a completely different nation-state occupying the same space as our A-H, right? So making it like the UK is off the table, and the best we can hope for is a surviving, multiethnic, federalized A-H of some kind.

As for the UK, I would assume that, to make it more like A-H, you'd have to stop the English from becoming by and away, the largest ethnic group in the British Isles. If I may link to one of my other threads, where the Vikings manage to hold in Northern England for longer, perhaps based around Jorvik, and develop a distinct Scandinavian-influenced culture of their own, replacing Northern England, and if some English king goes on to unite the isles, maybe they could provide a stronger resistance to Anglicization (Briticization?) later on? If the Industrial Revolution and nationalism arrive on schedule, the UK won't just be "England, et al." you'd have a large, industrial nation to resist against the English just subsuming everyone else under a "British" identity. Maybe they'd rebel, and there'd be a "British Ausgleich," later on, a dual monarchy of England and Jorvik, or something, with stronger nationalist movements in general, and liable to disintegrate, should they be starved out of a WWI-style industrial total war.

Assuming a titanium butterfly net, of course.

BTW, thanks for all the responses guys.
 
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