Why was it that the German Empire was (at least, perceived as) so much more powerful than France? Was it because of better industrialization due to more resources, or were there other reasons, like France's demographic slowdown?
Not so sure that's fair.As other people have said on the thread. Germany had access to more industrial resources, had a faster growing population (lots of orphans for factory work) and a better educated population.
Look at the statistics Elfwine posted. Although France was one of the best-educated countries in Europe (a greatly improved situation from the 1870's), it still couldn't quite match up to Germany in terms of literacy rates.Not so sure that's fair.
68 out of a thousand translates to.7 percent...Which means 99.3 percent were literate. Germany also has the advantage of having a great many autonomous states for a far longer period, which each ruler championing his/her own version of the Arts within his state. more schools and institutions of higher learning with their own particularly influential set of patrons.Look at the statistics Elfwine posted. Although France was one of the best-educated countries in Europe (a greatly improved situation from the 1870's), it still couldn't quite match up to Germany in terms of literacy rates.
68 out of a thousand translates to.7 percent...Which means 99.3 percent were literate. Germany also has the advantage of having a great many autonomous states for a far longer period, which each ruler championing his/her own version of the Arts within his state. more schools and institutions of higher learning with their own particularly influential set of patrons.
France is a unified state with a single government responsible for those same things across the entire breadth of the nation. Germans may have a better standard for the basics of education...the three R's as it were.. but when you get to more theoretical work and philosophical discourse, French Universities probably rank ahead of all of their German contemporaries.
68 out of a thousand translates to.7 percent...Which means 99.3 percent were literate.
Actually 68 out of a thousand translates to 6.8% illiteracy or 93.2% literacy, which is pretty good for the era. Germany's 1 out of a 1000 or 0.1% seems suspiciously high considering no country today actually has a literacy rate higher than 99.5% thanks to the existence of learning difficulties and disabilities.
Note that this is X out of a thousand recruits entering the army, not people on the whole.
Is there a difference in the area of universal conscription?
IMO the reason for Germany becoming stronger than France in the 19th century is the lack of centralism in Germany. Everything in Farnce is centered on Paris. But this wasn't the case in Germany.
France is a unified state with a single government responsible for those same things across the entire breadth of the nation. Germans may have a better standard for the basics of education...the three R's as it were.. but when you get to more theoretical work and philosophical discourse, French Universities probably rank ahead of all of their German contemporaries.
Germany was more decentralized? I'm still a novice on the topic of the German government at this time but I thought the Kaiser was the undisputed ruler of all Germany? Could you help to explain to me the functions of the German government so that I can understand this better?IMO the reason for Germany becoming stronger than France in the 19th century is the lack of centralism in Germany. Everything in Farnce is centered on Paris. But this wasn't the case in Germany.