The Spanish Americas succeeded in their independence struggle in the aftermath of the Napoleonic Wars and Spanish internal turmoil. Why didn't The Philippines follow suit?
The Spanish Americas succeeded in their independence struggle in the aftermath of the Napoleonic Wars and Spanish internal turmoil. Why didn't The Philippines follow suit?
t the lower levels of administration, the Spanish built on traditional village organization by co-opting local leaders. This system of indirect rule helped create a Filipino upper class, called the principalia, who had local wealth, high status, and other privileges. This perpetuated an oligarchic system of local control. Among the most significant changes under Spanish rule was that the Filipino idea of communal use and ownership of land was replaced with the concept of private ownership and the conferring of titles on members of the principalia.[17]
The Spanish Americas succeeded in their independence struggle in the aftermath of the Napoleonic Wars and Spanish internal turmoil. Why didn't The Philippines follow suit?
The rebellions in South America were royalist in their beginnigs; the people theres didn´t want to recognize the french-puppet government and like the Spanish mainland, made "Juntas" in the name of Fernando VII and the "legitimate" Spain.
Yes after Mexico's independence the Philippines went to Spanish direct control. This possibly improved a bit the conditions of the locals.
In any case, I think this is like asking why India didn't revolt in 1775. Because it is in a different continent, under a different regime, and very much more isolated from the mainland than its American counterparts. Did the Filipinos even know that the French had invaded Spain at all?
What is this "India" you are talking about in 1775?