This is something I'm intrigued with. Firstly, I denounce any murder spree and I hate any attack against any race. But I just wanna ask, why did not Hitler have a "French Question" and exterminated Holocaust-style the French like he did with the Jews? France was really adamant to impose the Versailles Treaty on Germany in 1919, even occupying the Rhineland until 1935, and many Germans hated the Versailles Treaty, so they could have easily blamed Germany's political and economic woes on the French. So, what gives?