Why did the North Amer. colonies not have mixed populations like the Spanish?

Paraguay is of course the exception, and it was even more the exception until the tragedy of the Triple Alliance War.
 
But why would this increase the population of the Spanish ones? Seems like more contact with Europeans would cause the epidemics to spread faster among the Spanish colonies.

It didn't. Before conquest the bulk of the Spanish colonies (Mesoamerica+Andes) already had what? 10? 20? 50 times the native population of eastern North America? Meaning that even after a 90% dropout in population there were still more natives around there than in ENA before contact.
 
Ah yes, the ubiquitous Cherokee great-great-great-great grandmother:rolleyes:


Maybe I'm being too harsh, but these wannabes would be more credible if they claimed to descend from a tribe that was less isolated and, you know, actually living near the areas their ancestors lived.

To be fair the Cherokee and many native people were moved from their homes in the East Coast and transported West. Lots of opportunity for mixing but there is still the racism barrier
 
And of course in the Caribbean, the Spanish did pretty much wipe out the native peoples, which to me makes the arguments about different population levels/levels of social organization* seem pretty valid.

*Not as in "hurrah, progress and civilization!", but as in "people who are used to taking orders from central authority get kept around by the new central authority".

I was thinking about the Spanish wiping out the Caribs. And in the reverse you can look at the British and Dutch in the Indian subcontinent where they ruled in a manner not too different than how Spain/Portugal ruled Latin America, right down to taking native wives and producing mixed race children. All of this happening at the same time as British settlement of Eastern North America.
 
But social organization was really different. Of course you may write about the caribes being wiped out and other areas of british and dutch colonisation with some degree of mixing. But the fact was that amerindians in Spanish America had laws that protected them from 1510 and specially from 1550. They even regulated child labour limiting it... something that was not achieved in Europe until the XIX century.
Amerindians were also considered also subjects with full humanity: with body and soul (something that most protestant theologians denied until the XIX century).
Of course you have the problem of applying the law in an era were communications were so poor.
 
Top