It seems strange that the Austrians crossed mountains and rivers to end up in control of Serbia and Lesser Wallachia for 20 years (1718-1739) but they never occupied the Bosnian wedge.
I would have thought Bosnia, being even further away from Constantinople on the furthest western fringe of the European OE, would have been vulnerable to conquest, and easier and more useful for Austria to consolidate control over.
Why did things work out this way? Are there factors I have not thought of that shaped the outcome?