alternatehistory.com

(yes I have checked if there were other threads with this type of premise and have found none, then again I didn't try really hard or anything)

So in a lot of timelines in which the Western democracies face off against various cocktail of Axis powers (some just a Nazi empire, some also tack on the Japanese empire). Many of those ends with the Axis collapsing from their own economic inefficiencies and mounting costs of oppression (at least those timelines that don't end with nuclear WWIII or quick axis conquest of the rest of the world), somewhat mirroring the soviet collapse of OTL.

So, in a timeline where a bunch of POD (not really important unless it'll significantly influence one side or the other to a significant degree) to which the result that by the late 1940s the fascists dominate much of Western Europe and East Asia (i.e. Nazi defeat France, UK, etc. while Japan conquers much of China and various European colonies) and the USSR dominates much of Eastern Europe. Both sides possess nuclear weapons in sufficient quantities and knows the consequences of full nuclear war (because if they don't we all know the likely result is "nukes fly and people die"). The USA, for whatever reasons, is not considered to be a threat to either side (whatever the POD is, probably something like the US didn't join WWII).

So the question is, assuming a similar type of cold war as compare to OTL cold war, which side is more likely to collapse first? Think of it as the battle of the runner ups.
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