Deleted member 97083

This is not plausible. If nothing else, whoever conquers the populous civilizations of Mesoamerica and the Andes is going to have no interest in depopulating these territories. How will they be able to get wealth without people to extract the wealth?
After Spanish conquest, the population of Mexico and Peru continued to decline to about 1650. Only by 1650 did their populations start to grow again. Once the initial Conquista was over, this was mostly due to disease stress, but nonetheless, the depopulation happened IOTL.
 

Deleted member 67076

Not really possible given the large amount of natives and slaves. But you can certainly play with the demographics to make it whiter.

1) Dramatically screw over the US. Have it be an unstable, decentralized, oligarchal mess that descends into civil war ever 10 years or so like OTL Mexico. That will lessen the amount of immigrants going there.
2) Delay the independence of Latin America (delay or prevent the French Revolution and critically prevent Ferdinand VII from getting the throne), allowing for the stability of the late colonial era to continue. Immigration was already on the upswing, and the economic reforms + stability would gave way to increased urbanization, higher wages, and a small native manufacturing sector.
3) Keep Latin America stable for the next few decades. Combined with its rapidly growing and integrated economy in the wake of the late 1700s situation continuing, and the region will look very appealing to European migrants who want land, prestige and money.
4) Ban slavery. Millions of slaves were still coming in up until the 1860s, legally or not.

This should get millions of more immigrants from Europe and the Middle East in comparison to OTL, altering the demographics. You're still going to get plurality Mestizo areas in many places, but other areas such as Venezuela, the Caribbean, and Mexico will look very different.
 
After Spanish conquest, the population of Mexico and Peru continued to decline to about 1650. Only by 1650 did their populations start to grow again. Once the initial Conquista was over, this was mostly due to disease stress, but nonetheless, the depopulation happened IOTL.

Right. The bulk of that population decline was accidental, a product of epidemic disease complicated by imperial misrule. I am unaware of any official programs of extermination.

The OP suggested that there might have been in some timelines. This is simply not plausible: the ethics of the situation aside, there would have been no good reason for any plausible European colonial powers in the Americas to try to actively depopulate their territories.
 

fashbasher

Banned
Latin America is already 35-40% European descent. Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay, Cuba, Costa Rica, Chile, etc all have very high percentages. Venezuela and Colombia have fair percentages 30-42%. Mexico has upwards of 10-15% which is a very large populace for its 100+ million inhabitants. Dominican Republic is at the low end with 16% and other nations such as Nicaragua, Honduras, Peru and Bolivia are below 10%.

I mean, Brazil is the third largest nation on earth in terms of 'white' or European descent, only behind the US and Russia. So, what more do you want?

You could have Haiti with a higher percentage if you consider it Latin America. I have no idea on other nations. Prior to the revolt in Haiti, European was perhaps 7% of the population in the colony. That could add a fair amount to Latin America.

The whiteness of Costa Ricans is kind of a myth. The average Tico is estimated at 45-49% white, but their culture doesn't recognize mestizo as a separate category from white.

http://kerwa.ucr.ac.cr/handle/10669/9190
 
The Spanish and Portuguese colonies dealt with a lot more than just the color of a person's skin in four or five categories. They had something like so dozen versoins, with Peninsulares being at the top. If we go by European only being those coming straight from Europe, then it is impossible of course since they wouldn't count in a generation. If we go by culture or ethnic background, then I imagine we can count 70% percent as being white, by virtue of having one drop of European blood in them, even if just from centuries before. Really, it is more cultural though. That is part of why people these days differentiate Hispanics and Middle Easterners from Europeans. Lot of overlap with looks, but common believes and practices are what tie things together.

Besides, if the Spaniards tried shipping over millions of Europeans in lieu of bringing over Africans as forced labor, then we simply end up with a couple million whites dieing and Europe losing a lot of its population base.
 
In our timeline, the Spanish and Portuguese conquistadors engaged in miscegenation with both the indigenous population and Africa slaves which resulted in the racially-mixed population in Latin America today.

But let’s say that in an alternate timeline:

1). The conquistadors bring their own women to the Americas.

2). The Catholic Church strictly prohibit miscegenation between whites and non-whites.

3). More massacres and smallpox epidemics happen.

4). Spanish and Portuguese authorities allow Catholics from Europe to immigrate to their colonies. Aside from more Spanish, Portuguese, and Italian families immigrating, many Dutch, German, and English Catholics immigrate to the New World as a result of the anti-Catholic sentiment arising due to the Protestant reformation.
Sorry, hadn't read this thoroughly before I posted. No, this is impossible.
 
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