When did the European conquest of all of India become inevitable?

After when was the British takeover of all India inevitable?

  • It was inevitable due to geography

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • c. 1500

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • 1707-1739, Mughal collapse

    Votes: 13 37.1%
  • 1757, Battle of Plassey

    Votes: 3 8.6%
  • 1761, Third Battle of Panipat

    Votes: 1 2.9%
  • 1764, Battle of Buxar

    Votes: 1 2.9%
  • 1790-1792, Third Anglo-Mysore War

    Votes: 5 14.3%
  • 1799, Sack of Seringapatnam

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • 1803-1805, Second Anglo-Maratha War

    Votes: 6 17.1%
  • 1845, Battle of Ferozeshah

    Votes: 5 14.3%
  • 1857-1859, the Indian Rebellion

    Votes: 1 2.9%
  • Other

    Votes: 0 0.0%

  • Total voters
    35
I am not expert of this issue but I think that on early 19th century begun to be point when conquest of whole India was inevitable. So I casted Second Anglo-Maratha War. But probably there is better suggestions too.
 
From the Mughal collapse, after that India was divided into a bunch of minor rajas (ofc we did had the marathas, but they also fragmented later), it would be impossible to colonize a strong unified india, as it was with the Qing dynasty
 
The poll title and thread title don't match. The thread title says "European" takeover, while the poll title says "British" takeover.

I feel like it could be argued that a European takeover was inevitable at the time of the Mughal collapse, but a British takeover definitely was not at that point, as there were many other powers (France, Portugal, the Netherlands) who had major holdings in India that could have out-competed the British. In fact, having a single colonial power controlling 99% of India was, IMO, the least likely outcome, with a more likely outcome being that India would be broken up into colonial spheres of influence (something between Africa and China)....
 
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