When did Spain become more backward than northwest Europe:

When did Spain become more backward than northwest Europe?


  • Total voters
    73
Status
Not open for further replies.
I was thinking in terms of Industrialization, in the 1800's Spain really fell from eminence in comparison to the other European Powers, going from the largest and greatest empire to one of the smaller, middle level ones. One hundred years before they were easily as or more powerful than France or Great Britain but they ended up losing their great power status.
 
Spain never became 'backward' it just sort of ya know suffered a major economic collapse and had a hard time getting over it to continue competing with the others to the same degree.
 
Last edited:

Dirk_Pitt

Banned
Spain never became 'backward' it just sort of ya know suffered a major economic collapse andhad a hard time getting over it to continue competing with the others to the same degree.

I think that's what he means. Just poorly worded.
 
I'll take it that you mean when did Spain cease to be a power of the first rank, and gradually slipped back to a minor power.

In that case, I'd suggest that Spain ceased to be a leading power during the 1700s, lost its position as a secondary power during the Napoleonic Wars, and from there didn't really lose power, so much as other places (Belgium, etc...) grew more powerful.
 
I'll take it that you mean when did Spain cease to be a power of the first rank, and gradually slipped back to a minor power.

In that case, I'd suggest that Spain ceased to be a leading power during the 1700s, lost its position as a secondary power during the Napoleonic Wars, and from there didn't really lose power, so much as other places (Belgium, etc...) grew more powerful.

Stagnation is form of decline as well (it's just relative to others- good example is China).

I'd say that Spain backwardness started with colonies and massive gold influx and progressed steadily. It reached its peak during Philip IVth rule... But it's not like it was better later.
 
i'd say around the late 1600s when the major centers of wealth in Europe (and North America) witched from the southern nations that relied on things like gold and silver for their economy to the Northern nations that relied on Industry, Banking, and proto-capitalism.

Spain had too much invested in the silver market to even try and build up German or Dutch style industry and lacked the river system to truly support it anyway.
 
Before and during the Reconquista, the Spanish Christian kingdoms were backwater places basically good at fighting and not much else. Sure, during their heyday they were rich and powerful, but culture and technological innovation were far more based in the Low Countries, France and Italy.

So I voted for the first option.
 
Before and during the Reconquista, the Spanish Christian kingdoms were backwater places basically good at fighting and not much else. Sure, during their heyday they were rich and powerful, but culture and technological innovation were far more based in the Low Countries, France and Italy.

So I voted for the first option.

Those humble roots as a feudal, post-reconquista backwater are what make Spain's cultural achievements in its golden age so remarkable. The country's population was also rather smaller than one would expect given its size and prominence. Population density was far greater - and more urbanized - in places like Northern Italy and the Low Countries for example.

I'm not saying you're claiming it but there's this annoyingly persistent black legend kind of idea that the renaissance just skipped over the country.
 
I guess 1700´s because the power from uniting Spain and qonquering America would by then be balanced by the other major powers.

While the inquisition kicked out the muslim and jewish population the country lost a lot of potential for production, innovation and trade. They did possess an astounding wealth, but this was eaten by inflation and rule of the nobility whom spend the money rather than invest it.

However they were so darn rich, this still kept them in lead for a long time.
 
The late 1700s and early 1800s, as industrialization made easy access to pliable iron and coal much more important to a nation's economy, and as the global economic core shifted from the Atlantic to the North Sea.
 
I guess 1700´s because the power from uniting Spain and qonquering America would by then be balanced by the other major powers.

While the inquisition kicked out the muslim and jewish population the country lost a lot of potential for production, innovation and trade. They did possess an astounding wealth, but this was eaten by inflation and rule of the nobility whom spend the money rather than invest it.

However they were so darn rich, this still kept them in lead for a long time.
The line between spending and investing is quite blurry.
 
Impossible to say. Northwestern Europe is a pretty big area with massive variety. If you mean when did Spain become less economically developed than the Low Countries then the answer is about 1200, Ireland on the other hand is probably some time during the Celtic Tiger period of the 90's.
 

CalBear

Moderator
Donor
Monthly Donor
Poll attached -

Options:

Prior to conclusion of Reconquista
1500s
1600s
1700s
1800s
When did you decide that this week was the perfect time for your first kick?


Actually could have done this with the Russia thread, but this one is even worse.

You've been here almost from Day 1.

You know better than this. See ya' in 7.
 
Top
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top