When did Islam's fall from grace begin?

He hasn't refuted anything, he's just tried to show that Islam was a fertile place for inventiveness, I just pointed out that most of the claims were taken from elsewhere and or not developed any further, this is what lead to the stagnation of Islamic society.

As for the west setting aside religion, this came about when the monolithic power block of the Roman Catholic church was broken by Luthers thesis. It's not that the thesis was important in and of itself, but, that it gave impetus to many to break away and set up power structures of their own. A lot of realms broke up not for religious reasons (though that was the excuse) but to enhance the power of the local princes from their overlords. Once this breakup occurred you had the competition neccesary to force further developements. Further developements require cash to fund them. You then get the rise of a mercantile class who eventually end up owning the nobles. The mercantile class usually look for better, quicker and cheaper means to do things so as to maximise their profits. This in the end enabled western investment in factories, exploration and progress.

I realise its not quite as simple as I make it out to be, but unless a society goes through occasional turmoil where the established order is forced to innovate or be removed then all you get is stagnation. This is particularly true of societies with monolithic religions who's sole purpose (in my eyes) is the perpetuation of the monolithic religions structures.

The west had its Luther, Islam did not, it remains pretty much the way it ended after its expansionist phase.

Luther's ideas were certainly not unique. He himself admitted to building on the teachings of many previous Church fathers. His theses simply came at a time when there were many people sympathetic to them in Europe. Crediting the culmination of a whole intellectual and social age to one man is rather absurdly short-sighted.
 
One suggestion I read mentioned a point about the Koran. That Mohammed being a trader in earlier life, the book has numerous mentions of merchants and how they relate to Islam. On the other hand there is only one reference to farmers and that is about them paying taxes. The author of this is a writer who I have seen a couple of references before and seems to have a lot of experience on the ME and its history. Therefore presuming its accurate, unless anyone can tell me otherwise.

He was suggesting that although Islam quickly came to control the richest agricultural lands in the world this was to prove a flaw in its make-up. As in other societies, the military rulers often distributed land to their supporters. However because of this low priority to agriculture the rulers considered the agricultural regions as just sources of wealth to achieve their other long term aims. Resulting in a steady decline in what had once been the richest region of the world, to the much lower levels that it has been in for the last few centuries.

Steve
 

Leo Caesius

Banned
One suggestion I read mentioned a point about the Koran. That Mohammed being a trader in earlier life, the book has numerous mentions of merchants and how they relate to Islam. On the other hand there is only one reference to farmers and that is about them paying taxes. The author of this is a writer who I have seen a couple of references before and seems to have a lot of experience on the ME and its history. Therefore presuming its accurate, unless anyone can tell me otherwise.
No, that's quite accurate. Many of the metaphors of the Qur'an are economic in nature, and Islamic culture has always thrived in the city rather than the countryside. The exception which proves the rule is the bedouin, who are famously nomadic and pastoral rather than sedentary and agricultural.

He was suggesting that although Islam quickly came to control the richest agricultural lands in the world this was to prove a flaw in its make-up. As in other societies, the military rulers often distributed land to their supporters. However because of this low priority to agriculture the rulers considered the agricultural regions as just sources of wealth to achieve their other long term aims. Resulting in a steady decline in what had once been the richest region of the world, to the much lower levels that it has been in for the last few centuries.
You raise an interesting point. Most Islamic regimes were relatively laissez faire, concerned only with raising armies and levying taxes. Yet the great "hydraulic civilizations" of the ancient Middle East were basically planned economies. In order for agriculture to flourish in these regions, the rivers had to be carefully managed and large-scale infrastructure needed to be developed. Given the fragile nature of agriculture in the region, and the need for constant attention and careful planning, perhaps the economic practices of the Arabs did contribute and even hasten the decline in fertility. I don't know enough about Islamic agricultural practices to be sure.

The fields of Mesopotamia, at least, had been growing less and less fertile since antiquity due to improper irrigation techniques and the increasing salinity of the soil. I also seem to recall that the increasing desertification of the rest of the ME throughout the historical record was also the result of climatic (rather than man-made) changes. So, at most, the Arabs inherited a bad situation and exacerbated it.

The land mostly remained in the hands of the Arabs' predecessors. Most of the terms used for farmers in Arabic have negative connotations - fellahin and nabat are two of the more common ones. To this day, the Kurdish word for Armenian is "flah" from Arabic fellah meaning a kind of country yokel or peasant. These people were neglected and even isolated, to be sure - a sign of their isolation is the fact that the Nabat continued to speak Aramaic well into the Islamic era and survives even today in some isolated spots, when it died out elsewhere.
 
One suggestion I read mentioned a point about the Koran. That Mohammed being a trader in earlier life, the book has numerous mentions of merchants and how they relate to Islam. On the other hand there is only one reference to farmers and that is about them paying taxes. The author of this is a writer who I have seen a couple of references before and seems to have a lot of experience on the ME and its history. Therefore presuming its accurate, unless anyone can tell me otherwise.

He was suggesting that although Islam quickly came to control the richest agricultural lands in the world this was to prove a flaw in its make-up. As in other societies, the military rulers often distributed land to their supporters. However because of this low priority to agriculture the rulers considered the agricultural regions as just sources of wealth to achieve their other long term aims. Resulting in a steady decline in what had once been the richest region of the world, to the much lower levels that it has been in for the last few centuries.

Steve


Good point. Also didn't two great hydrolic disasters (burst dams) dramatically reduce agricultural production along the Tigris and Euphrates and in Yeman around the time of Islam's advent?
 

Leo Caesius

Banned
Good point. Also didn't two great hydrolic disasters (burst dams) dramatically reduce agricultural production along the Tigris and Euphrates and in Yeman around the time of Islam's advent?
As far as I know, the canals of Yemen had become silted up long before Islam showed up, resulting in the decline of the kingdoms of that region. The great dam of Marib broke in the 6th century, at least fifty years before the advent of Islam, but it had broken several times before and had been repaired each time. This time, it went unrepaired, as the people there no longer had the technology (or the desire) to repair it by this point. They languished under Sassanid rule for a few generations until the Muslims showed up.
 
OK here is my basic outline of the decline of Islam (with paralells to Western Europe).
869-879 The Zanj Rebellion in Basra province. Thereafter the caliphs declined in significance as Turk troops became the backbone of all Islamic armies in the east. Central government of the Umma collapses in the heartland. Western European paralell is the death of Marcus Aureillius and the rise of the military emperors.
1212 Battle of Las Navas de Tolosa. Andulsia is weakened beyond repair.
1258 The Mongol sack of Baghdad, similiar to the fall of Rome to the Ostrogoths. The center of culture and learning is lost. Intellectual life turns toward preservation, not innovation.
1529- Defeat before Vienna. The end of the Ottoman Ascendancy.
1571- The battle of Lepanto. Clear proof of European technological ascendant. Inflation caused by silver from Mexico had ravaged the Muslim empires of the west. The agarian society of the Muslims could not adapt.
1798 Napoleon's invasion of Egypt. Muslims can no longer defend their own land. Their independence is (until Ataturk in 1915 and 1921) dependant on assistance from Christian powers.
 
OK here is my basic outline of the decline of Islam (with paralells to Western Europe).
869-879 The Zanj Rebellion in Basra province. Thereafter the caliphs declined in significance as Turk troops became the backbone of all Islamic armies in the east. Central government of the Umma collapses in the heartland. Western European paralell is the death of Marcus Aureillius and the rise of the military emperors.
1212 Battle of Las Navas de Tolosa. Andulsia is weakened beyond repair.
1258 The Mongol sack of Baghdad, similiar to the fall of Rome to the Ostrogoths. The center of culture and learning is lost. Intellectual life turns toward preservation, not innovation.
1529- Defeat before Vienna. The end of the Ottoman Ascendancy.
1571- The battle of Lepanto. Clear proof of European technological ascendant. Inflation caused by silver from Mexico had ravaged the Muslim empires of the west. The agarian society of the Muslims could not adapt.
1798 Napoleon's invasion of Egypt. Muslims can no longer defend their own land. Their independence is (until Ataturk in 1915 and 1921) dependant on assistance from Christian powers.

Interesting... so Ottomans were Justinian of Islam, so to say, when paralleled with the West? It is an interesting line of thought...
 

Leo Caesius

Banned
1798 Napoleon's invasion of Egypt. Muslims can no longer defend their own land. Their independence is (until Ataturk in 1915 and 1921) dependant on assistance from Christian powers.
This is the date conventionally given as year zero of the modern Middle East. It was a significant year by any account, even though other Europeans (such as the Portuguese) had taken other parts of the Middle East in the 17th century.
 
I was going to pull a Leo and do a "quote then rebuke" of all the ignorant shit Quiet Man claimed, but the sheer amount of stuff to address is daunting, so I'll just do the ones not already mentioned

As for the Mongols, I believe you are correct here, the west was fortunate that they had very little that the Mongols wanted whilst the rich cities of Mesopotamia did.

Actually, the Mongols not invading Europe had absolutely nothing to do with whether the West had anything the Mongols wanted. The Great Khan at the time (Ogadei, Subotai, Batu? don't remember the name off the top of my head) had an army of 300,000 men ravaging much of Eastern Europe (see the battle of Liegnitz), and readying themselves to push west. The only reason they didn't follow through was because there was a succession crisis back in Mongolia over who would be the next Khan, forcing the generals to return to Mongolia. If this hadn't happened, it is quite probable the Mongols would have ravaged all of Eastern Europe, Germany, and France at the very least.

Religion in general, tends to put strictures on scientific developement. You tend to have the Nobility, and the Church, neither of which has any interest in upsetting the status quo. The Nobility is essentially a closed society shut off from the bulk of the population which leaves only the church itself as a route out for the best and brightest. These would have been wasted on religious study, translating, re-writing, worship, with precious little time for anything else. You might get the occasional tinkerer in either society, but nothing major. The one factor of that society I have left out is the Mercantile class, it is these who are freed up by the loosening of religious doctrine, it is these who tend to look for bigger, better, cheaper ways to do things.

Gee, its almost like your taking a societal model highly specific to Western Europe and then forcing it onto a completely different society. Ever read a book called "Orientalism"?

You mentioned scholar al-Idrisi taking a globe to Sicily, tell me why there are no islamic settlements in America? Could it be that they couldn't make it there? Or could it be that they straddled the spice routes and saw no need to seek out a means to circumnavigate said globe.

Or maybe its due to the fact that a Muslim trying to discover the Americas would have had to either circumnavigate Africa, or fight his way through an inland sea with hostile people dogging him at every step, 2 things Europeans didnt have to when they sailed West. Also, you make it sound as if Muslim commerce consisted entirely of sitting on their asses while trade caravans rolled through, when in fact Muslims were actively creating new trade routes and markets in Eastern Africa and India.

You have still failed to come up with a satisfactory reason for the majority of centres of Islamism being 3rd world, despotic ran, socially barbaric societies, with the form of the religion being far more important than its meaning.

You mean a reason besides the multiple factors other people have mentioned?

history of mathematics (oddly enough a hindu site not Baathist at all in any sense)

I'd be shocked if you were aware of this, but using most Indian sites for a history of mathematics is likely to not tell you very much. The Hindutva movement in India has scores of websites exhaggerating the already considerable Indian contributions to mathematics as a way of furthering their ultra-nationalistic movement.

I also don't use single source internet sites, a quick scan gave me a history of innoculations (oddly enough not a Baathist site) History of carpets (again not a Baathist site) history of mathematics (oddly enough a hindu site not Baathist at all in any sense) I also studied the effects of islam on minority racial groupings and so have far more sympathy with assyrians, chaldeans, berbers, kurds, armenians, and anyone else involved in the arab expansionism that was the basis of Islam.

Well, since you used MULTIPLE unverified internet sites, that changes everything. I absolutely will believe your facts over those of someone with a PhD in the field.
 
I was going to pull a Leo and do a "quote then rebuke" of all the ignorant shit Quiet Man claimed, but the sheer amount of stuff to address is daunting, so I'll just do the ones not already mentioned



Actually, the Mongols not invading Europe had absolutely nothing to do with whether the West had anything the Mongols wanted. The Great Khan at the time (Ogadei, Subotai, Batu? don't remember the name off the top of my head) had an army of 300,000 men ravaging much of Eastern Europe (see the battle of Liegnitz), and readying themselves to push west. The only reason they didn't follow through was because there was a succession crisis back in Mongolia over who would be the next Khan, forcing the generals to return to Mongolia. If this hadn't happened, it is quite probable the Mongols would have ravaged all of Eastern Europe, Germany, and France at the very least.



Gee, its almost like your taking a societal model highly specific to Western Europe and then forcing it onto a completely different society. Ever read a book called "Orientalism"?



Or maybe its due to the fact that a Muslim trying to discover the Americas would have had to either circumnavigate Africa, or fight his way through an inland sea with hostile people dogging him at every step, 2 things Europeans didnt have to when they sailed West. Also, you make it sound as if Muslim commerce consisted entirely of sitting on their asses while trade caravans rolled through, when in fact Muslims were actively creating new trade routes and markets in Eastern Africa and India.



You mean a reason besides the multiple factors other people have mentioned?



I'd be shocked if you were aware of this, but using most Indian sites for a history of mathematics is likely to not tell you very much. The Hindutva movement in India has scores of websites exhaggerating the already considerable Indian contributions to mathematics as a way of furthering their ultra-nationalistic movement.



Well, since you used MULTIPLE unverified internet sites, that changes everything. I absolutely will believe your facts over those of someone with a PhD in the field.

Oh I see, so sorry never realised anyone with a Phd could never be wrong or mistaken. Or that the Islamic states are still a shining beacon of civilisation and I somehow just missed it.

I can see trying to debate here is a waste of time, I put up a theory, all I get is abuse mixed with rhetoric on how Islam invented just about everything from coffee to cryprographic algorhythms. That they built upon previous knowledge I accept, that at some stage they fell behind is a given, as to why, well theres the Mongols, they destroyed much scientific knowledge in the invasions in the 13th century, however there was still the Ottoman empire having a golden age in the 16th century, so the Mongols aren't to blame. From being one of the beacons of civilisation to where they are now would be quite a fall, however there was no fall as such, they just never moved on.

Still thats enough from me, I know when I'm wasting my time, even if I were right I'd still be wrong as I crossed swords with a Phd in some peoples eyes. Nice little club you have here, newbies may as well not bother to even try to debate.
 
Still thats enough from me, I know when I'm wasting my time, even if I were right I'd still be wrong as I crossed swords with a Phd in some peoples eyes. Nice little club you have here, newbies may as well not bother to even try to debate.

The level of education you have and length of time you've been on the site have nothing to do with the fact that everyone is disagreeing with you. I, for example, am a high school dropout and signed up for the site four months after you did. Maybe there's something wrong with your arguments. I do apologize if my tone has seemed confrontative; we're merely trying to understand your view and refuting your points, not attacking you.
 

HelloLegend

Banned
I am thoroughly impressed by the time and effort the person put into this thread. I am working a detailed thread of my own.
 

gaijin

Banned
Quiet man

You are not wrong because you disagree with a PhD. You are wrong because you dont supply evidence for your claims. The thing with PhD papers is that they are peer reviewed. That doesnt mean that they are infallible (far from it), but they are much more thrustworthy than internetsites.

You are wrong because you oversimplify factors which cant be simplified. No need to go complaining when other posters debunk you.
 

Leo Caesius

Banned
I can see trying to debate here is a waste of time, I put up a theory,
You did no such thing. You insisted, several times, that progress of any sort was anathema to Islam and that anything good that came out of the Middle East must have originated elsewhere and was merely slavishly imitated by the Arabs. You stated this several times as a mantra even when offered evidence to the contrary.

all I get is abuse
Well, see, Islam has martyrs too - perhaps you have more in common with it than you thought.

mixed with rhetoric on how Islam invented just about everything from coffee to cryprographic algorhythms.
You've got a lot of nerve complaining about rhetoric when you've been spouting plenty of your own. I mean, you were talking about the School of Nisibis as if it were M.I.T. or something.

That they built upon previous knowledge I accept, that at some stage they fell behind is a given, as to why, well theres the Mongols, they destroyed much scientific knowledge in the invasions in the 13th century, however there was still the Ottoman empire having a golden age in the 16th century, so the Mongols aren't to blame. From being one of the beacons of civilisation to where they are now would be quite a fall, however there was no fall as such, they just never moved on.
You know, at first glance this almost sounds profound, but on further analysis it's meaningless. What do you mean "there was no fall as such, they just never moved on?" What's that supposed to mean? One might as well argue that Rome or China or Egypt never "fell," they just never "moved on."
 
You know, at first glance this almost sounds profound, but on further analysis it's meaningless.

Ouch. The chap is new you know.

What do you mean "there was no fall as such, they just never moved on?" What's that supposed to mean? One might as well argue that Rome or China or Egypt never "fell," they just never "moved on."[/QUOTE]

Some people have argued, rather bizarrely considering the evidence, that Rome did not fall it did just move on. A cursory glance at cows and rooftiles
tells otherwise of course.

There is a legitimate point here - the last real Islamic Empire fell in the 1920s, yet Islam's "fall from grace", (do we mean material and cultural superiority?) happened a long-time before.

This encourages analysis of internal not external causes. If we think that a meaningful distinction of course.
 

Leo Caesius

Banned
Ouch. The chap is new you know.
Yes, I know, I shouldn't be so aggressive against him. It is incredibly frustrating, however, to put time and effort into a response to claims I've seen raised a gajillion times, only to be parried by litany of "no, it's not, you're wrong, look here, I've got a website."

I mean, I've studied Islamic civilization (and the status of minorities under Islam) for a while now. Quiet_Man made the claim that the pre-Islamic population of southern Iraq was so thoroughly Arabized and Islamized that no trace of it remains, but I've worked hard over the years (and particularly during my doctoral work) to prove that not to be the case. It's a common mistake; Nicholas Ostler, head of the Endangered Languages Fund, makes the same mistake in his book Empires of the Word.

My closest friend is a Zoroastrian. Another friend of mine was Bahai who was recently tortured by the Iranian regime. I grew up around Armenians and Syrian Jews. One of the reasons for which I was hired for my current position was the contacts I had in the New Jersey Middle Eastern Christian community through my family, and my ability to mobilize them behind my department (I'm still working on that). My university has, on average, about ten students of Assyrian (or more properly "Syriac," including Syrian Orthodox and other denominations) origin and innumerable Copts (my state being the state with the largest Copt community in the country). I'd like to think that, despite my proximity to these people and their communities, I can still maintain some degree of objectivity regarding Islam.

There is a legitimate point here - the last real Islamic Empire fell in the 1920s, yet Islam's "fall from grace", (do we mean material and cultural superiority?) happened a long-time before.

This encourages analysis of internal not external causes. If we think that a meaningful distinction of course.
With regard to the agricultural question raised earlier, I read an excellent article on the train ride to work. The long and the short of it is that the Muslims inherited the tax policies of the Byzantines and continued to apply them to non-Muslim landowners. Muslims, on the other hand, paid only the tithe. As a result, many non-Muslim landowners converted to Islam to avail themselves of the lower tax rates, but the government soon put a stop to this, setting the tax rate to the territory rather than the religion of its owner. This gave an inherent advantage to those landowners who were (in theory) administering state lands (albeit ones deeded over in perpetuity) as opposed to those who owned their own land. Eventually, this gave rise to a system parallel to the feudal estates of Christian Europe.

Given the fact that the Muslims inherited a system from the Byzantines, which gradually evolved to become something like the European feudal system, I do not think that we can lay the blame for the decreasing yield of the formerly fertile lands of the Near East upon any specifically Islamic practice (seeing as the practice in this regard was analogous to that in Europe in many respects).

My chief argument all along has been that the sad state of the Middle East is due to a number of factors, chiefly social, economic, and political, and that to claim that the fall of the Middle East is attributable to the form of religion practiced there is to ignore a great deal of evidence contrary to that conclusion. The fall of the Islamic world from grace, so to speak, is comparable to the fall of other civilizations, and rarely if ever do we attribute one single factor to their fall with the same vigor with which we attribute the Near East's fall to the perceived shortcomings of Islam. This is merely the latest form of a very old religious debate, a kind of heresiology, formerly conducted between Islam and Christianity, and lately adopted by the successors to both entities.
 
Yes, I know, I shouldn't be so aggressive against him. It is incredibly frustrating, however, to put time and effort into a response to claims I've seen raised a gajillion times, only to be parried by litany of "no, it's not, you're wrong, look here, I've got a website."

I have been reflecting on this. Fundamentally it comes down to a lack of people studying Middle Eastern history, and the general disconnect from the "mainstream" study of history.

A couple of years ago, when I first started reading more about the middle east, I began to realised how little I knew. I knew the facts and figures perfectly well, but my understanding of the debates, and of an Arab/Muslim view of which events were important, was non-existent.

The thing is, I had studied the medieval middle east.
I studied the general history of the period 300-900, looking at the early Caliphates and seeing some sources - e.g. Ibn Khurdadbheh
I then studied Byzantium and the Crusades, looking at plenty of translated Arab sources.

From speaking with a friend who studied Oriential languages though, the picture was completely different. They looked at the history in more detail, and more importantly, had a very different view of the texts and their reliability.

Mainstream historians - as opposed to those studying the language, simply do not look at the Middle East in detail. The result is plenty of general history filled with generalisations, which, predictably, are not true on the ground. I see little hope of this changing soon unless a lot more good historical research is done.

This means more translated documents, a couple of months ago I read a 20th C history of Iran, by a man named Ali Ansari, so not a westerner by origin, but his main sources seemed to be British Foreign Office documents - inevitably leading to a lopsided view. Presumably the lack of alternate material - and particularly translated material, held back widening his sources.

Rant over.
 

Leo Caesius

Banned
This means more translated documents, a couple of months ago I read a 20th C history of Iran, by a man named Ali Ansari, so not a westerner by origin, but his main sources seemed to be British Foreign Office documents - inevitably leading to a lopsided view. Presumably the lack of alternate material - and particularly translated material, held back widening his sources.
In particular, the millions of documents currently in the Ottoman archives. If and when these are translated out of Ottoman and made available to the scholarly public, they will lead to a revolution in the way that Middle Eastern history, and perhaps even general history, is perceived.
 
In particular, the millions of documents currently in the Ottoman archives. If and when these are translated out of Ottoman and made available to the scholarly public, they will lead to a revolution in the way that Middle Eastern history, and perhaps even general history, is perceived.

What are you waiting for?!
Are they actually sealed off by the authorites? Or are they simply buried away?
 
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