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So, without overstating my case about the similarities here, it can be said that both the Magyars and the Bulgars were Central Asian peoples that migrated to Europe in the early Middle Ages and established powerful states. The Bulgars eventually accepted the Christianity, a Slavic language, and many other Slavic customs, becoming the Bulgarians as we know them today. On the other hand, the Magyar, though they did eventually convert to Christianity, resisted the same level of assimilation as the Bulgars. Though both Latin and German were official administrative languages for some time, it never caught on permanently with the Hungarian people. Hungarian is one of the few non-Indo-European languages of Europe.

However, if the Hungarians had assimilated more thoroughly into European culture and adopted some form of Indo-European language, what would it have been - a Germanic language or a Slavic language? Hungary was and is in close proximity to both German and Slavic peoples. So, with a POD after the establishment of the Principality of Hungary in 895, which is more likely - a Germanized or Slavicized Hungary?
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