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When people on this board discuss the possibility of England and France defending Czechoslovakia at Munich, it is often pointed out that while it is true the Germans were much less prepared in 1938 than 39, so were the Entente. I'm nor sure if there was agreement as to whether this benefited the Entente or Germany more. But if it benefits Germany, it's clearly not a rule that earlier=better, since early in Hitler's reign Germany barely even had an army.

Also, it is often pointed out that Germany could not have simply waited until 1942 or so and developed better tanks, because the Entente would also have completed rearmament and Germany's economy would have collapsed. But just how far could Germany have waited and still had a chance? Hence the thread title and poll.

Since "start would war 2" is a vague definition, suppose for a start in 1939 or later it means waiting until that year to attack Poland with the Entente guaranteeing it, while a start in 1938 or earlier means the Entente standing up against an earlier of Hitler's power plays.
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