Macragge1
Banned
French Fleet w/Axis: Why didn't the Germans SIEZE the French Fleet under terms of the Armistice? French naval assets could have been utilized by Germany and manned by German sailors. Had this occurred, coupled with the Italian Navy, the Axis could have easily forced the British from the Med & North Africa. Additionally, Germany could have greatly increased it's number of submarines by taking over the French boats. Also, the French had a number of modern battleships which could have been used as commerce raiders by German crews. French naval assets in German hands may have even led to evening out the odds of Germany attempting an Operation Sealion at some point.
The problem with this is that:
A) Germany don't have enough crews to man these vessels, nor are they in the process of training them. Doing so would be a huge investment over the course of several years - time is something that Germany doesn't have.
B) It is difficult, near impossible, for Germany to seize any appreciable part of the French Fleet. We need only look at the scuttling of the French Fleet in Toulon in 1942 to understand this; it's very difficult to get onto a ship if the crew don't want you on there; they can simply sail away (as some did, to join De Gaulle) or they can sink themselves, as the remainder of the French Navy did at Toulon. There may have been emnity between the French Navy and the British following Mers-El-Kebir, but they would still not entertain for a second the possibility of handing their ships over to la Boche.