What if Stalin decides he wanted Soviet influence over at least northern Greece and ordered some units of his forces taking the surrender of the Bulgarians in Sept 1944 to drive into Greek Thrace and Macedonia ahead of the British?
Would I be correct in assuming that for logistic reasons he could not hope to beat the British to Athens, Piraeus, the Peloponnesus or any islands?
Obviously if Stalin is doing this he is going to be demanding more than the 10% share of influence in Greece that Churchill offered him on a napkin in October 1944.
Assuming Stalin supports Communist-led political control of northern Greek cities and regions and regularization of Greek Communist guerillas without formally calling for a partition or total exclusion of British influence, what kind of price will Stalin pay for this in terms of relations with FDR and Churchill?
Would I be correct in assuming that for logistic reasons he could not hope to beat the British to Athens, Piraeus, the Peloponnesus or any islands?
Obviously if Stalin is doing this he is going to be demanding more than the 10% share of influence in Greece that Churchill offered him on a napkin in October 1944.
Assuming Stalin supports Communist-led political control of northern Greek cities and regions and regularization of Greek Communist guerillas without formally calling for a partition or total exclusion of British influence, what kind of price will Stalin pay for this in terms of relations with FDR and Churchill?