what if self determination was treated differently after WW1

what if the self determination after WW1 had also applied to the allies colonies..how would that have affected WW2....would for example the Irish Free State( Republic of Ireland now) have joined the allies in WW2 and would Britain have lasted without the help of its empire
 
what if the self determination after WW1 had also applied to the allies colonies..how would that have affected WW2....would for example the Irish Free State( Republic of Ireland now) have joined the allies in WW2 and would Britain have lasted without the help of its empire

Not going to happen. The VERY POINT of the Entente (what you are anachronistically calling "allies") fighting as hard and bitterly as they did was to maintain a position as world powers which, in the current understanding of the era, mor or less assumed and required a somewhat large colonial empire (perhaps more as a matter of course than anything else). Russia was seen as an exception because of that, well, LAAAARGE chunk of Eurasia it controlled even without holding "proper" (as in, overseas) colonies.
Any concept of "self determination" that would meaningfully extend to French and British colonies would have to be forced into the very restive ruling bunches of London and Paris through either a massively crushing defeat, or am EQUALLY massive level of financial pressure, and probably both. That means, any meaningful and consistent enforcement of the self-determination principle (assuming that it is possible at all) anywhere outside central-eastern Europe (where it had shown its total unworkability as early as Spring 1919, before Versailles) REQUIRES the DEFEAT of the Entente powers, on a pretty large scale.
 
Heh. What if Wilson didn't give Ho Chi Minh the brush-off, that is, telling him self-determination was for white folks, not fuzzy little foreigners like you...
 
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