Correct.
Ditto. That was exactly the plan. It wasn't wise (trying to wage a fighting retreat with infantry divisions in the face of armored ones), but it was that.
What if Poland attacked Germany first?
- Thread starter King Thomas
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Correct.
Ditto. That was exactly the plan. It wasn't wise (trying to wage a fighting retreat with infantry divisions in the face of armored ones), but it was that.
Have there been serious propolsals for French, British or Polish pre-emptive action at an earlier date than 1939, for example in 1935 (Hitler openly announces German re-armament) or 1936, when Hitler occupied the Rhineland? At this date the French army alone was still hugely superior to the German one.
Allegedly Piłsudski proposed Polish-French pre-emptive war in 1933, when Hitler took over. France wasn't interested.
Vault-Scope
Banned
Some of those incompetent imbeciles boasted their army woould reach Berlin within 3 weeks. 
Polish gov had remarkably little common sens and could have easely been goaded into an all-out attack.
Of course, bigger the lie...
Wasn´t that part supposed to be secret?
Polish gov had remarkably little common sens and could have easely been goaded into an all-out attack.Of course, bigger the lie...
Wasn´t that part supposed to be secret?
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I'm not sure if it would actually make any differnce in the long run.
Lets say UK and France dont declare war. But they were by then builing arms as fast as they could - that isnt going to change. Probably the same in Germany.
So spring 1940 puts the balance of forces about the same (except the BEF is still in the UK).
Now is Hitler going to hope France doesnt decide to stab him in the back when he goes for Russia, or decide (as he did) to take out France first, securing his back when he does go east?
I just see pretty much the same stuff hapenning in 1940 (except probably Norway wouldnt have been invaded at the same time)
Lets say UK and France dont declare war. But they were by then builing arms as fast as they could - that isnt going to change. Probably the same in Germany.
So spring 1940 puts the balance of forces about the same (except the BEF is still in the UK).
Now is Hitler going to hope France doesnt decide to stab him in the back when he goes for Russia, or decide (as he did) to take out France first, securing his back when he does go east?
I just see pretty much the same stuff hapenning in 1940 (except probably Norway wouldnt have been invaded at the same time)
I Suspect you'd see PM Halifax, but if the war is caused because Germany outright attacks France, I think Vichy would be unlikely and PM Halifax would almost certainly not move for peace.
Vault-Scope
Banned
1940
May 15th: operation Barbarossa is launched from Poland, Romania & Latvia/Lithuania, into the CCCP.
May 16th: Britain declares war to Germany.
May 18th: France declares war to Germany.
... or how about Polish military deciding to start war in 1936, on the ground that Hitler is part of the world jewish conspiracy?
May 15th: operation Barbarossa is launched from Poland, Romania & Latvia/Lithuania, into the CCCP.
May 16th: Britain declares war to Germany.
May 18th: France declares war to Germany.
... or how about Polish military deciding to start war in 1936, on the ground that Hitler is part of the world jewish conspiracy?
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For what? Declaring war on the Soviet Union? I hardly think so. After all, stomping the reds was the entire PURPOSE of Germany.
Vault-Scope
Banned
Not quiet. It is France & Britain declaring war to Germany, as a reaction to German expansion eastward.
And what precisely is the difference in declaring war to Germany, and declaring war on Germany?