In OTL, by the terms of Macon's Bill Number 2,
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Macon's_Bill_Number_2,
the U.S. was open to trade with Britain and France despite their violations of American neutral rights from the American POV. However, as an incentive for good behavior, the bill had a proviso that if Britain or France agreed respect American neutral rights, the US would cut off trade with its enemy.
In OTL, the UK ignored the U.S. pressure (at least until too late to stop war) while France exploited the opportunity to get better press in the US and to sour US-British relations by at least
saying France agreed to American demands.
What if Napoleon did not get around to responding to the act, either due to inattention or contempt?
If France had not pledged, then the provisions embargoing Britain would not have gone into effect a few months later. US public opinion would have been equally outraged at both France and Britain, weakening the argument to pick one to go to war with. And ongoing trade ties with Britain would have lessened tension compared to OTL's trajectory and left incentives to avoid war.
Could a declaration of war on Britain have passed in the period between 1812 and 1815 under these circumstances? Without Britain distinguished as *the* offender against US maritime rights (because France is gleefully privateering against American ships whenever convenient), is land lust by some for Canada and recriminations over policy towards Amerindians enough to lead to a US declaration of war on Britain?
Are any circumstances from this point forward likely to lead to a US declaration of war on France?
What are the long-term consequences if the US does not go to war at all with Britain in the 1812-1815 period or only does so later in that period compared with OTL?