alternatehistory.com

It is a well known fact that, much like many French kings, Louis the XIV wanted control over the Spanish low countries and lower Italy. But when he excluded Britian and the Dutch from Spanish trade, when Phillip V took the throne, the Dutch, British and Austrians sighned a pact to take the Italian and and Low countries while also cutting Phillip V from the French line of succession. My question is, what if Louis the XIV did not exclude the British and Dutch from trade and instead played nice? would Spain and France have united fully?
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