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Suppose the hungarian tribes that invaded the Carpathian Basin at the end of the 9th century got instead 'lost' somewhere(Magna Hungaria, Levedia, Etelköz, wherever) on the vast Eurasian Steppe and never reached the valley of the Danube.

It seems likely that the power vacuum in the Carpathian Basin would have been filled by some slavic state, maybe Greater Moravia or a succesor state to it. Supposing this state succeeds in becoming a more or less stable entity (obtains a crown from the pope etc.) and fulfills approximately the same role as Hungary did in OTL how would the different ethnic makeup influence the state's 19th and 20th century history?

A predominantly slavic original population would have probably developed one national identity having lived within one state for about a millenium. Whatever the original regional ethnolinguistic differences might have been the closeness of slavic tongues AND a unified state is likely to have resulted in one nation rather than in a group of ethnicities with centrifugal tendencies- as it was the case with the Hungarian Kingdom.

Romanians would have probably been under a much greater pressure to become slavicized, being surrounded from all sides...of course they have no close romance-speaking neighbours in OTL either, and they haven't assimilated...

So what would result from replacing the ethnic patchwork of Hungary with a more united nation-state? Could this state have freed itself from Austrian rule before WW1? Then again, it would have probably been left undivided after the WW and we would have a large Eastern-European state instead of the 4-5 smaller ones in the area.

obs. I really need to research more about this subject, feel free to point out ASBs, inconsistencies, whatever...
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