alternatehistory.com

This is a short article on the pact:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German–Polish_Non-Aggression_Pact

From the German POV, the pact wasn't popular, and Hitler doing it was sort of a "Nixon goes to China" maneuver that earlier politicians like Stresseman could not have done and probably would not have wanted to do.

WI Hitler decides that such a pact is more than he can swallow, just too demotivating to his supporters in the Reichswher and in right-wing German politics.

He's not planning on attacking or even escalating tensions with Poland in the year 1934 mind you , but he has no desire to be seen renouncing any claims that Weimar politicians like Streseman, Bruning and Hindenburg hadn't been willing to renounce.

How do things go from there?

There is an ongoing German-Polish customs war.

Does lack of a German-Polish pact lead to a Polish invasion of Germany in '34? I highly doubt it, but go for it if you want to make a case for it.

Preventive war or no preventive war, how is Polish (and other European) foreign policy effected over the next five years.

Would the Anglo-German naval pact still be negotiated on schedule?

Was or was not the German-Polish pact a "sedative" for countries like Britain and France that made a difference in their evaluation of Hitler's bottom-line in the middle 1930s? I wonder if it was a sedative allaying European fears temporarily, because the Polish corridor had been thought of since the end of WWI as the most likely flashpoint of Germany's next war, and here was Hitler in 1934 publicly saying he wasn't going to fight about it.
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