What if Charles V get a second legitime son?

Valdemar II

Banned
I was think in case ofn Charles W getting a second legitime son, would he let him inheriate the Burgundian inherience while letting Philip gain Spain?
 
He might and maybe he would also have added the duchy of Milan.
However this will lead to a fiercer conflict with his brother Ferdinand over who is going to be the Habsburg candidate to succeed Ferdinand as king of the Romans once Ferdinand succeeds Charles as Holy Roman Emperor.
 
He might and maybe he would also have added the duchy of Milan.
However this will lead to a fiercer conflict with his brother Ferdinand over who is going to be the Habsburg candidate to succeed Ferdinand as king of the Romans once Ferdinand succeeds Charles as Holy Roman Emperor.

Well, considering that Ferdinand became King of the Romans in 1531, if Charles has two sons before that he might even not allow his brother be elected, making his second son his successor instead.
 
He might and maybe he would also have added the duchy of Milan.
However this will lead to a fiercer conflict with his brother Ferdinand over who is going to be the Habsburg candidate to succeed Ferdinand as king of the Romans once Ferdinand succeeds Charles as Holy Roman Emperor.

Agree. Ferdinand waited all the life to become Emperor, and i guess he sold the soul to the devil to archieve this goal.

With a second legitimate son of Charles HRE could split in a civil war between Hasburg.
 
Well, considering that Ferdinand became King of the Romans in 1531, if Charles has two sons before that he might even not allow his brother be elected, making his second son his successor instead.
Good point, especially since this second son will probably upon reaching adulthood be made the Governor of the Habsburg Netherlands and I guess that he will even have a part of his education there before that time; so this will also make him another representative of his father in the Empire (like his uncle Ferdinand).
 
IIRC Charles' plan was to have the second son inherit the Burgundian territories. I will take a different stance than has been expressed, and say that in fact the division of the Netherlands from Spain would secure secession for Ferdinand's line. Charles was the one who finally nixed Philip's desires for the German Crown, after accepting himself the deal between his grandfathers. a second son weakens Philip's claim. And in any case, the Electors would probably still prefer Ferdinand and his line, since he was an Elector himself.
 
IIRC Charles' plan was to have the second son inherit the Burgundian territories. I will take a different stance than has been expressed, and say that in fact the division of the Netherlands from Spain would secure secession for Ferdinand's line. Charles was the one who finally nixed Philip's desires for the German Crown, after accepting himself the deal between his grandfathers. a second son weakens Philip's claim. And in any case, the Electors would probably still prefer Ferdinand and his line, since he was an Elector himself.

How many years has Ferdinand got left at this point? If he dies early enough I don't see why Charles' second son couldn't succeed him.
 
Well then wouldnt this prevent the gobbling up of Burgundian territories by Austria and France:confused:

Austria didn't gobble up a lot of Burgundian territories, Austria eventually got these after the Spanish Habsburgs died out as part of the division of the Spanish inheritance. (Obviously?) Before this settlement was reached, there first had to be the war of the Spanish succession.

France OTOH did expand into the territories of the Burgundian Circle and probably will also be the biggest threat for ''Burgundy'' under this scenario.
 
Alexius I Kommenos said:
Well then wouldnt this prevent the gobbling up of Burgundian territories by Austria and France:confused:

If you mean the partition of the Burgundian territories, it already happened by the time Charles V was around. The treaty that gave the Duchy of Burgundy to Louis XI of France and the County of Flanders to Holy Roman Emperor Maximilian I (Charles V's grandfather) had already been concluded long ago by the time the son of Charles V (Philip II of Spain) was born : I believe Charles V was not even born when the treaty was signed.

Charles V did claim rights to the Dukedom of Burgundy but he finally renounced to them in a treaty with Francis I of France. In the same treaty, Francis renounced to his claims on Milan and maybe on Naples (I'm not sure but I think he had already given those up before the said treaty).

If Charles V has a second son, he would probably split his Empire so that the second son gets something. Austria is a possibility, but from what I understood, there would be tensions between Charles V and his younger brother, Ferdinand.
A possibility I could see would be for Charles V to give Spain to Philip II and the Netherlands to his second son. Not sure how plausible this is though.

By the way, how would Charles V name his second son? Charles or Maximilian seems good possibilities to me.
 
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