So, in most places controlled by the Roman Empire, with sizeable Latinized populations a version of vulgar Latin became one of today's Romance languages, with the exception of Britain and Greece/Byzantium.
Why in the Eastern Empire did Greek eventually replace Latin and why didn't the population adopt Latin or a vulgar Latin like in Gaul, Hispania, and Romania?
What if a language like Aromanian became the language of the Byzantine Empire?
I'm thinking of Aromanian because it is a Hellenic influenced Romance tongue. How would this affect the development of the Byzantine Empire if it all?
How would it change the Greek National identity? Would their even be a "Hellenic" Greece?