What happens to France if (post 'Case Red') UK comes to terms with the Axis in summer of 1940?

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What happens to France if during the summer of 1940, at some point after the French have signed the Bordeaux Armistice, the British come to terms of their own with Germany and Italy?
(For the sake of argument let's say the US government blocks destroyers-for-bases, Churchill becomes convinced that this is a sign that the Americans can't be drawn into the war and that there won't be enough ships for escort plus anti-invasion duty for the UK to carry on fighting, and this combination causes even him to fold for now.)
Do the Germans and Italians continue to occupy parts of France, and to place restrictions on the Vichy government, indefinitely?
Will the Axis offer French colonies in North Africa to Spain now that the British are no longer fighting, to try and bring Franco into the (planned) war against Russia and if so is there anything (without Britain fighting and with France part-occupied) that the French could do about it?
 
Churchill may be well against such a proposal, but in this scenario, the British government may not have much of a choice. The war would end on the Germans' terms. Vichy France would regain Northern France (with the obvious exception of Alsace-Lorraine) on the condition that they join the Axis Powers. Norway, Belgium and the Netherlands would be given independence on the condition that they cooperate with the German government. Italy annexes Savoy, Corsica and British Somalia (whether or not Mussolini gets more of Eastern Africa is up for debate). Hitler will probably offer Franco all of Morocco in exchange for joining the Axis Powers. The Axis would likely continue the war with Free France in order to annex the remaining colonies not under Petain's command. The final demand Hitler would make is for the British and Dutch to continue to trade with Japan, thus removing any possibility of the Japanese striking the Southern Islands and instead Hirohito will aid in the fight against Russia. Churchill would go into disgrace and FDR would actively condemn the United Kingdom for being passive to Germany. But there's nothing America can do now. Now all Axis eyes are going be set on the Soviet Union.
 
Followup question(s), since the original one doesn't seem to have inspired much response:
Does the world, in the long-run, benefit, as compared to the Original Timeline, from a scenario in which the British come to terms with Germany in 1940?
Is there any chance that left to their own devices, the Germans and Russians will beat one another up so badly that in the end both regimes ultimately collapse?
Without the mountain of debt, wrecked industries, and lost prestige of the OTL war, would the UK government actually able to wind down the British Empire in a much more controlled fashion than the exhausted collapse of the the OTL, with countries instead departing and transitioning to self-rule in ways more beneficial (than in the original timeline) to their inhabitants?
Would anyone actually end up building and using in anger an atomic bomb?
 
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Followup question(s), since the original one doesn't seem to have inspired much response:
Does the world, in the long-run, benefit, as compared to the Original Timeline, from a scenario in which the British come to terms with Germany in 1940?
Is there any chance that left to their own devices, the Germans and Russians will beat one another up so badly that in the end both regimes ultimately collapse?
Without the mountain of debt, wrecked industries, and lost prestige of the OTL war, would the UK government actually able to wind down the British Empire in a much more controlled fashion than the exhausted collapse of the the OTL, with countries instead departing and transitioning to self-rule in ways more beneficial (than in the original timeline) to their inhabitants?
Would anyone end up building and using in anger an atomic bomb?

Is a few tens of millions of dead Slavs, Jews, Poles, Gypsies, and other minorities dead equal a better world? No so great job you just doomed millions of people to death at the hands of Hitler.
 
Part of the problem is the evidence for 'German' terms is so thin. Hitler was vague and contradictory in his rambling remarks on the subject. We dont have much if anything for coherent policy to work from.
Which is to some extent frustrating from an analysis point of view. Does Hitler push for forcible deportation from Europe of undesirables (in some circles at least partially referred to as the 'Madagascar Plan') as opposed to camps & extermination, if there is no blockade and the sea-lanes are open?
And although 'ethnic cleansing' is in and of itself by modern standards a war crime, how many orders of magnitude lower a death toll (if any) would it have clocked up than the original timeline 'work them all to death'?
 
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And although 'ethnic cleansing' is in and of itself by modern standards a war crime, how many orders of magnitude lower a death toll (if any) would it have clocked up than the original timeline 'work them all to death'?

Well, the post-WWII expulsion of Germans from East of the Oder-Neisse (and the Sudeten Germans) had a death toll of about half a million (maybe even more but the higher numbers seem to be a bit inflated) of 12 to 14 million displaced Germans.

And we can assume that Nazi Germany will evict their 'undesirables' with at least the same callousness (if not even more), the way to Madagascar is much longer (even if it would be a closer destination the route would still be longer than, say, East Prussia to Berlin) and the infrastructure to handle forced resettlement of millions is simply not there, so the 'Madagascar Plan' (or wherever outside of Europe they would chose to force the Jews to go to) could just as well pile up one or two million deaths, if not more.
And that's just considering Jews, should the Nazi Leadership decide that perhaps 10 to 15 million Poles would also 'need' to be resettled elsewhere then the body count would go up accordingly.
 
Did the nazis/Hitler care in 1940 where the Jews went? As long as they were out of the Aryan Reich. I recall at least one 1930s nazi leader quoted as saying Jews should be expelled to France, Britain, Italy, Poland, USSR, ect... as their presence made other nations weaker. The mentality behind the final solution was not firmly in place in 1940, so disposition of the Jews, or other untermench may not have entered much into peace treaties negotiated in the winter of 1940-41.
 
What happens to France if during the summer of 1940, at some point after the French have signed the Bordeaux Armistice, the British come to terms of their own with Germany and Italy?
(For the sake of argument let's say the US government blocks destroyers-for-bases, Churchill becomes convinced that this is a sign that the Americans can't be drawn into the war and that there won't be enough ships for escort plus anti-invasion duty for the UK to carry on fighting, and this combination causes even him to fold for now.)
Do the Germans and Italians continue to occupy parts of France, and to place restrictions on the Vichy government, indefinitely?
Will the Axis offer French colonies in North Africa to Spain now that the British are no longer fighting, to try and bring Franco into the (planned) war against Russia and if so is there anything (without Britain fighting and with France part-occupied) that the French could do about it?

two fairly plausible PODs ...

Dunkirk evacuation goes worse, most of French troops captured and naval losses worse (say instead of 6 DDs sunk and 19 damaged? 19 sunk and 6 damaged?) and British RN attack on French fleet goes worse (for French) the Strasbourg sunk trying to escape across the Med.

those two scenarios happen there might be more collaboration with Vichy regime and some type of treaty reached. doubt GB ever signs any treaty but they could abandon Malta to Italians, it was at least considered?

have a new Phoney War with German KM and LW going after shipping and French periodically bombing Gibraltar. not sure under this scenario the Germans would press to allow Japan into Indochina and/or offer up French colonies to Spain? (seems rather less likely)
 
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