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Simple question really.
Do you feel that the usurption of the English, Welsh, and Scottish crowns by the House of Orange was justified?

Been reading about the justifications used by the English Protestant conspirators and seems, with hindsight in mind, that James II wasn't jockying for an outright Catholic domination of the British government, but rather for more equality between the Protestants and Catholics. Moreover, I doubt that the charges of him conspiring to bring back absolute rule were founded on solid ground. After Charles I, there was no Parliament, Catholic dominated or not, that was going to allow that to happen.

(Dear god, am I becoming a Jacobite...)

Thoughts?
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