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Here's the question, poll attached.

In OTL within 50 years of Columbus first landfall in the Bahamas, all of the American coasts had been explored from the St. Lawrence to the Rio de la Plata, the outline of South America was known, and the only major geographic segment undiscovered by Europeans was the northwest half of North America from Oregon to northern Quebec.

The Caribbean did not have to be the location of first landfall. It was mainly because Columbus thought important parts of East Asia were at that latitude.

This happened to be in the same latitude band as Mesoamerica.

The most likely alternate points for the first early modern European landfall in the Americas however are far to the north or south of this area however.

Newfoundland is the closest part of the Americas to Europe, and Brazil is the closest part of South America to Africa. These were far more likely to be accidentally discovered and described by returning mariners than the Caribbean.

If Europeans of 1490 or later did their first round trip voyages to the Americas landing at Newfoundland or Brazil first, rather than the Caribbean, is a majority of both the continents likely to be explored by follow-on explorers in the first 50 years after landfall? Or could exploration of the continents from starting points in Newfoundland or Brazil have been a slower process taking 75 or 100 or 150 or 200 years instead of OTL's 50 years between Columbus and Coronado?

Why or why not?
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