Doing some work on my TL, and I have a question. What is the Philippines essentially ends up in Portuguese hands, although Portugal is united with Spain (peacefully) through marriage in the early 16th century. The mid-16th century sees a reorientation of the Portuguese Empire and has some great effects on funding and manpower. With bases in the Philippines, Portugal has a good arm for trading with not only China and Japan, but also it's spice trade in Indonesia.
While the revenue and trade from India it's self would probably continue to sail around Africa to reach Europe, would it be easier for that trade centered around the bases in the Philippines to simply sail across the Pacific to Mexico, and then sent to Europe? Would that route be longer, or shorter? About the same? I know it took about four months to sail the Pacific, but not sure about anything else. I'm just wondering what would be more efficient, especially considering the Portuguese become involved in what is essentially an ATL form of the Manilla Galleons.