Since the 15th century when Europeans began exploring and conquering and colonizing lands all over the world till now, Europe (and European-derived nations like the USA) have dominated the world. Many authors have suggested that due to various geographical and cultural factors, Europe after 1AD was pre-destined to rise to world pre-eminence eventually. Was this so, or could another part of the world, perhaps the Middle East, South Asia, East Asia, or even Africa have had a chance to gain dominance instead?
Another way to put it is this. Let's freeze the world at year 1AD of OTL. Now let's imagine that we have multiple parallel universes "playing out" history at the same POD of 1AD. 99 out of 100 times, would not Europe reign supreme by the 19th century in these parallel universes? Or is luck enough of a factor that some other part of the world could have reigned supreme instead?
Another way to answer this question is in these millions of parallel universes running history starting from 1AD IOTL, what percentage would you give to eventual European supremacy similar to what happened in OTL?