Was Britain Right to Enter WWI?

Was Britain Right to Enter WWI?

  • Yes

    Votes: 266 56.1%
  • No

    Votes: 223 47.0%

  • Total voters
    474

Riain

Banned
Given that scenario, Britain would probably have reasonably asked itself how long it would be before they would be facing Germany and allies, made stronger by a successful war against France and Russia, by themselves. And perhaps they convinced themselves that if they didn't join in August 1914 that they would be in an impossible position a decade later.

I'd suggest that this position was arrived at in the years leading up to the war rather than the last week of July 1914.

The position the events of July 1914 put the players in was Yes/No with the wriggle room being when, as the Militaries of the time were the bluntest of instruments incapable of what the SASR can do today with satellites etc in support.
 
Honestly, I believe Britain was rightful to intervene in the war against Germany. The Kaiser was no Hitler, but Britain's situation may be worse if they had to go to war alone one decade later.

In my opinion, Britain's greatest mistake at that time was that they refrained from pushing in favor of an Imperial Federation. They could've retained Ireland, for example. The aftermath of WW1 was the best moment to realistically try this kind of earth-shattering reform.
 

Osman Aga

Banned
On August 4, 1914, Britain declared war on Germany. The UK's casus belli was the German invasion of Belgium, which obligated Britain to enforce Belgian neutrality under the terms of the Treaty of London (1839).

Was the United Kingdom right to declare war on Germany? Or should Britain have stayed out of the conflict? You can either answer with the power of hindsight (reflecting upon the declaration of war while keeping in mind the Treaty of Versailles and the rise of Hitler) or simply answer from the standpoint of a Briton in 1914 who can't foresee the outcome of the war.

Depends on what they wanted in the long term. A weakened Germany that is no threat on the Seas? They weren't a threat considering the Royal Navy remained dominant, but a defeat guaranteed it. Everyone on the continent weakened so no more war? It didn't work out considering the Soviets reconquered the German puppets and Germany turned revanchist.

I am leaning to yes, because without entering the war there was no guarantee what Wilhelm II would do with France. If it was gutted, the UK could do nothing to stop if Germany got new ideas.

Edit:
- Yes: 53%
- No: 50%

Interesting indeed
 
Last edited:
Send a price quote then because gaining access through a neutral territory has a long history in European warfare. Especially in Germany/Central Europe which used be a patch work of states. It was often impossible to fight a war without crossing some neutral territory and rulers often considered granting such passage the wiser option.

Such passage of forces was usually negotiated beforehand and sometimes done with a bit of bullying but I can only recall one example of a nation misusing a passage of forces agreement to take over a country and that was Napoleon in Spain in 1807.

In hindsight, was Belgium really better off rejecting Germany's demand to pass through its country?
The point was Belgium was a sovereign Nation, that was actually created to be a buffer State. It's neutrality was guaranteed by France, Britain, and Germany herself. The Belgians weren't given a choice, the Germans just moved in, and had the nerve to declare that any resistance would be illegal, and meet with reprisals against the civilian population. The country was occupied, looted, and terrorized. Was the burning of the Library of Louvain an act of military necessity, or just German self righteous indignation? "How dare these little people stand in our way?" "Who are they to say no to the mighty German Reich in it's moment of need?" "We have said we need your country, and you must trust us that we will give it back to you, when we no longer need it?"

I guess the Russians, and French should have told the Germans they were going to war against each other, so the Germans had to let them use Germany as a battleground. The Germans just would've have had a right to keep their armies out. Who were the Germans to say no to their demands. Military necessity demanded it.
 
2nd Balkan War began b/c the Serbs welched on an agreement that they had made with the Bulgarians for a more "equitable" division of Vardar Macedonia...
2nd Balkan war began because Bulgaria chose to attack both Greece and Serbia without a declaration of war or warning, mere days before it was to participate in a conference with Greece and Serbia at St Petersburg under Russian mediation to settle differences from the 1st Balkan war. No-one forced the Bulgarians to do that instead of going through with the negotiations the had agreed to participate to.
 
It's only these moralistic ones that cause trouble, if the question was more technical the discussion would be quite fruitful.

I dunno, from what I remember that turns into a discussion of whether American banks would offer unsecured loans to the Entente so they could continue buying war materials, with a small possibility that them not doing so gets characterized as "crashing their own economy to help the Germans."
 

Riain

Banned
I dunno, from what I remember that turns into a discussion of whether American banks would offer unsecured loans to the Entente so they could continue buying war materials, with a small possibility that them not doing so gets characterized as "crashing their own economy to help the Germans."

Its funny that people try to answer big questions with smaller and smaller details. A small question can be answered with a small detail but things this big need a huge amount of information to be synthesized into a good answer. In any case history is not engineering, there isn't always a clear cut correct answer.
 
2nd Balkan War began b/c the Serbs welched on an agreement that they had made with the Bulgarians for a more "equitable" division of Vardar Macedonia... the Macedonians themselves felt more akin to the Bulgarians than they did to the Serbs... Serbia wound up taking it ALL. They would've taken northern Albania as well if the great powers hadn't stepped in - despite the inhabitants being uhhh... not Serbs. I'm sure perfect amity between the various ethnic groups and religions would've reigned :p
There was one eminently territorially aggressive entity in the Balkans from, oh, 1817 to 1914 - and that was Serbia....
(Image is of the agreed-to partition of Macedonia between Serbia and Bulgaria in the 1st BW)
View attachment 630251
The Serbians and Greeks had agreed to Russian mediation to solve overlapping claims, with a conference dated in russia literally just one week before Bulgaria attacked. Shifting all the blame to Serbia is disingenuous.
 
Nope, not yet. We still need to argue over who would've won WW1 if America didn't intervene...
I think THAT particular rabbit-hole was the one that led to a couple kicks and a l
I have to disagree with you on this one. The economies of Europe in 1914 were very different then those of the Napoleonic Wars. The ability of a modern State to regulate trade policy, and currency flows was far greater, then 100 years before. The scale of smuggling that destroyed the CS would be impossible in the 20th Century. By 1913 Germany was already the dominate trading partner for most of continental Europe, and had the highest level of reciprocal investment. Control of the Continent, would enable the Germans to create a tight trade block that could close out the UK from European Markets. Germany would have access to food, and strategic metals, and a Berlin to Baghdad RR would secure oil supplies.

The British industrial economy, and financial system was far more advanced then those of Napoleonic France, that was not the case with Imperial Germany. In1913 Germany had a larger population, GDP, and steel production, had the worlds leading chemical industry, and produced half of the worlds electrical equipment. The decline of Britain's global economic dominance was why Britain had to abandon "Splendid Isolation" in 1902, for a Japanese alliance to protect it's Asia, Pacific interests. Only in coalition with France, Russia, and Italy could Britain hope to contend with Germany, and her allies. Waiting for France, and Russia to be defeated, and crippled would leave Britain alone, with just Japan as an effective global ally. The only long term hope would be trying to convince the United States to take a more active part in global affairs, and that would be a heavy lift. The USA's position was complicated, to say the least.
Agree that the Europe of 1914 had become vastly different from the Europe of 1814... but there's still a "gap" between a German defeat of France, then Russia, and then hegemony over all Europe. For one, I don't assume that even with a UK absence, that everything would go right for the Germans. Schlieffen Aufmarsch West hinged on a near-perfect execution... as we know, such things seldom happen in warfare. The Germans weren't expecting to be slowed down as much as they were by Belgian resistance... on the 1st report of Russians riding through East Prussia, von Moltke likely would've panicked, as IOTL... No British entry would have butterflies - no Japanese entry (largely irrelevant as far as Europe is concerned) and possibly no Italian entry a year later, IF the war's still going on (which I find likely)... BUT it could also mean no Ottoman entry - suppose Churchill never seizes the Turkish ships, or is forced by political exigencies to release them, and Souchon's Black Sea adventure never happens... No open hostility between Russia and the Ottomans frees up a large # of Russian troops, who can be sent west. No Ottoman entry could mean no Bulgarian entry the next year, which would make life much more difficult for the KuK army in Serbia. Even with no UK entry, a Kaiserwank curbstomp is by no means assured.
I can understand the British reasoning for deviating from the old "splendid isolation" line... it wasn't tenable indefinitely. I also think that the German invasion of Belgium DID provide sufficient moral justification for entry. But, that being said, had they NOT joined in, the UK wouldn't exactly be powerless. They could certainly tilt the balance of trade in favour of France and Russia, and embargo war materiel to Germany and A-H... They could effectively seal off the Channel, and the Strait of Gibraltar. And, even in the case the CP's eke out a victory, the Brits could make their presence known even without a seat at the table: "You say you wish to vassalize Belgium, turn Antwerp into a naval base, and seize the Channel Ports? Well... we had no idea you'd wish to embark upon a new war so soon upon the heels of the old one..." 60 million Germans groan in unison, out of sheer exhaustion... and the guns of the RN stand at ready.
 
Not among Great Powers. We have a history of many of them not signing such charters after conflicts or such mediation. Furthermore, after the general mobilization of Russia and with Germany entering the State of Imminent Danger of War this would also no longer be possible. Before Germany enters such a state, diplomatic ventures were continued but with the mobilization it was a foregone conclusion. Like was acknowledged by every high ranking politician from France to Russia to Germany. You take face-saving measures and propaganda actions at face value instead of going deep into the material and look at the motivations and thoughts behind the actions.

Case in point Poincare: "When Renoult asked him in the train from Dunkirk to the capital whether a political settlement among the great powers was still possible, Poincaré replied: ‘No, there can be no settlement. There can be no arrangement.’ " Train from Dunkirk 28 July

Similar comments can be found from German, Russian and British side. The moment mobilization had been decided, the dice had fallen. Russia could not let Srebia fall without losing face on a massive scale and felt compelled to intervene. Germany would not forgoe their last Great Power ally. France would never let Russia face Austria and Germany alone. Everyone felt compelled to act through outside forces.

...okay so let's ignore the reason for one side and only account for the interests of the other. That seems reasonable. Accordingly, the interests of each side can be discarded on your say so. Making the argument about motivations etc. moot. Do you get the double standard you apply here?

Of course, it has, and I have never stated otherwise. This is like Israel vs Palastina or any other state with horrible history against another vs that nemesis. But just because it is reciprocated does not mean these acts are not true or did not poison the relations further. These were just acts in response to the assassination of Ferdinand. A relatively short time period, but the important one, because it was what led directly to WW1.

A-H was understandably upset about the murder of the heir of the Empire. At that moment you do not agitate them further but should try to accommodate them if you don't want to escalate the situation. Even just doing nothing would have been better. Trying to portray a nation mocking their nemesis after such a loss as peaceful or exhibiting such behavior is just plain wrong.

Let me first say this, spaghetti posting is bad faith arguing and picking out sentences from arguments to then make a case against is not arguing in good faith.

No, we don't. It boils down that you can only push another nation so far till they react. We can see similar actions done by nearly every nation in history. Israels Yong Kipur War and Seven Days War, America's Invasion of Afghanistan, Japan against Russia, US vs Mexico and the Balkan States vs Ottoman Empire.
Military actions(war) was still deemed a just measure for great powers to resolve their issues and we many examples out of this era that showcase that.

First it has to be mentioned that Germany was from the Great Powers involved the one at the calmest state at that moment, it had not even reached the State of Imminent Danger of War, which equivalent the Russians were beyond and the same went for France. Next, to compare a state of danger for an 'ally' and for themselves is different for every state on the planet. That is hypocritical, you are right there. But I want to see the nation that puts an ally on the same level of interest as their own.

Another point on the day of Russian Partial Mobilization 29 July, the Kaiser got a telegram from the Tsar threatening ‘extreme [Russian] measures that would lead to war’. But hey it is always easier to go for one document among many that supports your view, right?

"Late in the night of 29–30 July, a telegram from Sazonov arrived at the Russian embassy in Paris informing Izvolsky of the German warning. Since Russia could not back down, Sazonov wrote, it was the Russian government’s intention to ‘accelerate our defence measures and to assume the likely inevitability of a war’. Izvolsky was instructed to thank the French government, on Sazonov’s behalf, for its generous assurance ‘that we can count absolutely on the support of France as an ally’.53 Since the Russians had already advised France of the earlier decision to launch a partial mobilization (against Austria only), it can be inferred that Sazonov’s ‘acceleration’ referred to an imminent Russian general mobilization, a measure that would indeed make a continental war virtually inevitable." - Sleepwalkers​
It is just plain wrong to suggest Russia and France did not want war with their actions. When Russia commenced their full mobilization with the outright support from France, they did see it leading to war and did it anyway. To then just shift blame away from this act is just pathetic.

This is whataboutism. In the next post you state me doing that and here you are doing it. How can these be compared to what I state? Germany faced an existential threat and had, on which historians nowadays agree all-around, only the ability to sustain and win a short war. If your point is an aggressive war is never justified, that is fine your opinion not mine, but else this is not relevant to what I stated. It completely disregards Germany's strategic position, the established and accepted opinions of the politicians and military leaders as well as the threat they faced. Any comparison not taking these things in account falls short.
Ironically one of the best examples is Israel for an astute comparison is Israel.

No, it is not whataboutism. I established the reason for the actions of Germany and why they pursued a certain cause. You may call this cause wrong, deceitful or whatever else, but these statements are not whataboutism. You cannot on the one hand disregard these circumstances and then uphold the constitution of Serbia as the one irrefutable standard in the world.
Your point about changing the goal post once more is as obvious as unnecessary. But Liege the key fortress was already reinforced before Germany even mobilized making it doubtful that they would somehow change their agenda just because of something like that. Furthermore, I am utterly doubtful of this mediation going forward. Austria had already declared war on Serbia and was on the move. Russia would not have let that stand. It was an obvious political move to portray one side as the aggressor, like stated France moved brilliantly in this area, but it was not genuine. France had given Russia carte blanche to start an European War through actions on the Balkan years before and given full support for them mobilizing. They wanted war, not peace.

I dispute that the constitution of Serbia was broken through the ultimatum. It was just the justification they put forward and rings as false as their proclamation regarding criminal law.

"6. The Royal Government considers it its duty as a matter of course to begin an investigation against all those persons who have participated in the outrage of June 28th and who are in its territory. As far as the cooperation in this investigation of specially delegated officials of the I. and R. Government is concerned, this cannot be accepted, as this is a violation of the constitution and of criminal procedure. Yet in some cases the result of the investigation might be communicated to the Austro-Hungarian officials."

I call bullshit on the constitution and on the criminal procedure. It is an obvious falsehood to reject the ultimatum. The rejection was carefully crafted but looking at it in response to their actions after the assassination, like their appalling investigation, disregard of Austrian feelings and contempt to their questions regarding assistance it rings mocking and not sincere.

Your analogy ingores that Russia was given a carte blanche by France to start a general war through the Balkan long before this crisis. It ignores the act of assassination, ignores that Russia mobilized against Germany before Germany even declared the State of Imminent Danger of War whichs equivalent was already in place in France and Russia, but whatever. You are clearly stuck on a certain story line and bend things your way whatever the case.

This is whataboutism. You take out one singular instance and extrapolate everything from there. From this one instance you recategorize everything. I disagree with you, on the importance on this instance. I find it wrong to uphold this instance as the defining one. Why is the last bad attempt at peace the deciding one and not the major actions of escalation done by Russia? The first state to go forward with a general mobilization, sends out threats to other countries and ignores the call for peace by the other side. You use a remarkable double-standard. One thing is declared to matter above all and the rest is disregarded.

If an ultimatum is given, there is no guarantee you can negotiate. Exceptions to the rule do not disprove this. You ignore the earlier attempts by A-H to get Serbia to play nice. They asked for assistance and were essentially laughed out of the office. They asked for the Serbian government to please put a lid on their demagogue press, nationalistic circles, secret organizations etc. In this period Serbia disregarded all of these requests and displayed an abnormal sense of hostility. If this ultimatum was uttered a mere moment after the assassination, there would be some case for A-H going overboard, but they did try and got the middle finger in response.

They were gearing for war and an acceptance of this was the last chance for Serbia to prevent war. Considering how you so easily put the ball in Germany's camp regarding peace, it is surprising that here you go the opposite way, but wait not surprising. Bias just comes through.

I dispute that the constitution and criminal law really stood in the way of this. And to use the notion of someone else it kind of sounds like a Serbian problem and not an Austrian one... okay really bad jokes aside, I find the notion of the Austrian being allowed to be overseeing the investigation to break their constitution a highly doubtful statement. International observers and Haag, which did not precede the Serbian constitution are okay but Austrian ones are not. Consider me not convinced. Like stated it was a carefully worded letter meant to portray them as reasonable, while being an outright rejection in truth. They had assurances form Russia and Russia had them from France that they could go for it and therefore did.

And? To repeat something you obviously like to do. It does not matter if all the world thought something at some particular moment. I can cite peopel for the opposing view. There a quotes from Russians condemning this act to hell and state if it happened to their Czar they would crush the puny state. They were troubled over on the one hand condemning all such vile assassinations of nobles and on the other hand to not give up their support for Serbia.
In your whole line of reasoning you ginore the subtext and interests of the person you quote to support your point. A Russina, France etc. statement support a Serbian view is worthless. A statement from Hollwegg shortly after the assassination and not after or in correlation to the ultimatum and the acts of Serbia after this are not applicable. The situation was not static and changed sometimes from day to day and other times form hour to hour. Hardly any one statement was absolute representation of their opinion, because guess what the opinion of these people changed during this crisis.

It is an example of Serbia really not handling the diplomatic channels to Austria that well. How is this bad faith? We assume that comment was not badly intentioned but considering the bad blood between the two sides and with the recent regicide in Serbia that put the current king into power still in Austrian minds the comment could have been easily be miscontrued. A classical case of something sounding right in the mind but spoke out loud it sounds really bad.

And? You like to do that so what? Does this change what they did there? If you piss someone off, things do not change just because you promise to do better. This is not how things work and like stated A-H had more than reasonable cause to be disbelieving regarding these measures. Serbia already did an ivestigation and came up with nothing and now they would have had even more time to hide any kind of evidence. Such obstructiveness is not a good sign and not something an innocent party would do. It portrays a bad picture and that picture is not gone with one promise.

Just their leader and Avis, but hey your standards are not mine. You shift the goal post again and agian. There is a difference between the murder of a common soldier and the assassination of the heir of a monarchy where the monarch retains substantial power. But hey, you ignore such things again and again. So whatever.
Frankly, I am becoming more and more sceptical of your proof's and quotes.
For this for example
" On 29 June, Miroslav Spalajković, the Serbian minister in St Petersburg, issued statements to the Russian press justifying Bosnian agitation against Vienna and denouncing the Austrian measures against Serbian subjects suspected of involvement with irredentist groups. For years, Spalajković told the Vecherneye Vremya, the political leadership in Vienna had been manufacturing anti-Austrian organizations, including ‘the so-called “Black Hand”, which is an invention’. There were no revolutionary organizations whatsoever in Serbia, he insisted. In an interview granted on the following day to Novoye Vremya, the Serbian diplomat denied that the murderers had received their weapons from Belgrade, blamed the Jesuits for stirring up a feud between Croats and Serbs in Bosnia and warned that the arrest of prominent Serbs in Bosnia might even provoke a military assault by Serbia against the monarchy." -Sleepwalkers p.243/44
Pg 243/44 of Sleepwalkers is this:
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"Pašić, too, muddied the waters with ill-judged displays of bravado. In a speech held in New Serbia on 29 June, attended by several cabinet ministers, twenty-two members of the Skupština, numerous local functionaries and a delegation of Serbs from various regions of the Austro-Hungarian monarchy, Pašić warned that if the Austrians should attempt to exploit the ‘regrettable event’ politically against Serbia, the Serbs ‘would not hesitate to defend themselves and to fulfil their duty’. "Sleepwalkers.245

"On 3 July, for example, during an official requiem in Belgrade in memory of the archduke, Pašić assured the Austrian minister that Belgrade would treat this matter ‘as if it concerned one of their own rulers’. The words were doubtless well meant, but in a country with such a vibrant and recent history of regicide they were bound to strike his Austrian interlocutor as tasteless, if not macabre." -Sleepwalkers p.245
"Serbian official communications depicted Austrian recriminations as an utterly unprovoked assault on Serbia’s reputation, the appropriate response to which was haughty official silence." -Sleepwalkers p.245
Pg 245 says this:-
1614832657393.png

"On 30 June, the Austrian minister in Belgrade, Ritter von Storck, met with the secretary-general of the Serbian foreign ministry, Slavko Gruić, and enquired as to what the Serbian police had been doing to follow up the threads of the conspiracy which, it was well known, led into Serbian territory. Gruić retorted with striking (and possibly disingenuous) naivety that the police had done nothing whatsoever – did the Austrian government wish to request such an investigation? At this point Storck lost his temper and declared that he regarded it as an elementary duty on the part of the Belgrade police to investigate the matter to the best of their ability, whether Vienna requested it or not.
Yet, despite official assurances, the Serbian authorities never conducted an investigation proportionate to the gravity of the crime and the crisis to which it had given rise. At Gruić’s prompting, Interior Minister Protić did, to be sure, order Vasil Lazarević, chief of police in the Serbian capital, to look into the assassins’ links with the city. A week later, Lazarević closed his ‘investigation’ with a cheerful announcement to the effect that the assassination in Sarajevo had no connection whatsoever with the Serbian capital. No one by the name of ‘Ciganović’, the chief of police added, ‘existed or had ever existed’ in Belgrade.66 When Storck solicited the assistance of the Serbian police and foreign ministry in locating a group of students suspected of planning a further assassination, he was provided with such a muddle of obfuscation and contradictory information that he concluded that the Serbian foreign ministry was incapable of operating as a trustworthy partner, despite the assurances of Nikola Pašić. There was no pre-emptive crackdown against the Black Hand; Apis remained in office; and Pašić’s tentative investigation of the border regiments involved in smuggling operations fell far short of what was needed." p.244
Pg 244 doesnt this say this at all as shown above

So color me sceptical to take your claims. Perhaps you have misquoted? Perhaps you could re-quote?

First it has to be mentioned that Germany was from the Great Powers involved the one at the calmest state at that moment, it had not even reached the State of Imminent Danger of War, which equivalent the Russians were beyond and the same went for France. Next, to compare a state of danger for an 'ally' and for themselves is different for every state on the planet. That is hypocritical, you are right there. But I want to see the nation that puts an ally on the same level of interest as their own.
Then what right did Germany have to interfere with Austro-Serbian Affairs? Why give the blank check knowing that Russia was highly likely to defend an ally of its? Both Hollwegg and Falkenhayn categorically refused to even tell the public that the kaiser thought war was averted and steered Germany to war on July 27th, as shown by the pages i showed above in post #326 here. They planned Partial Mobilization on the 27th and full mobilization of the 30th before Russian mobilization.
Another point on the day of Russian Partial Mobilization 29 July, the Kaiser got a telegram from the Tsar threatening ‘extreme [Russian] measures that would lead to war’. But hey it is always easier to go for one document among many that supports your view, right?

"Late in the night of 29–30 July, a telegram from Sazonov arrived at the Russian embassy in Paris informing Izvolsky of the German warning. Since Russia could not back down, Sazonov wrote, it was the Russian government’s intention to ‘accelerate our defence measures and to assume the likely inevitability of a war’. Izvolsky was instructed to thank the French government, on Sazonov’s behalf, for its generous assurance ‘that we can count absolutely on the support of France as an ally’.53 Since the Russians had already advised France of the earlier decision to launch a partial mobilization (against Austria only), it can be inferred that Sazonov’s ‘acceleration’ referred to an imminent Russian general mobilization, a measure that would indeed make a continental war virtually inevitable." - Sleepwalkers
I find it highly questionable in the manner you continue to point fingers at Russia, especially with this quote which states that Russia did this on the 29th, yet you haven't raised a single reply to the fact that Germany decided to go to war on the 27th itself.
It is just plain wrong to suggest Russia and France did not want war with their actions. When Russia commenced their full mobilization with the outright support from France, they did see it leading to war and did it anyway. To then just shift blame away from this act is just pathetic.
In your own words, ignoring the proof that Germany planned to go to war regardless in July 27, and planned the mobilization of its forces before the Tsar on July 29-30 is getting really really old, and something I think you aren't even going to answer. You haven't deigned to respond to those at all, and I can only presume that you do not wish to reply to it because you do not have an answer for it. I have not shifted blame that Russia's panslavic ideology that plain stupid and that Poincaire was belligerent to the likes that the French military had to reign him in, however that doesn't absolve Germany of its guilt either, something which you seem to be shifting all the way only to Serbia and Russia.
This is whataboutism. In the next post you state me doing that and here you are doing it. How can these be compared to what I state? Germany faced an existential threat and had, on which historians nowadays agree all-around, only the ability to sustain and win a short war. If your point is an aggressive war is never justified, that is fine your opinion not mine, but else this is not relevant to what I stated. It completely disregards Germany's strategic position, the established and accepted opinions of the politicians and military leaders as well as the threat they faced. Any comparison not taking these things in account falls short.
Germany would not be in that position without belligerency they decided to go onto war on July 27th. Their 'existential' threat was a making of their own.
No, it is not whataboutism. I established the reason for the actions of Germany and why they pursued a certain cause. You may call this cause wrong, deceitful or whatever else, but these statements are not whataboutism. You cannot on the one hand disregard these circumstances and then uphold the constitution of Serbia as the one irrefutable standard in the world.
Your point about changing the goal post once more is as obvious as unnecessary. But Liege the key fortress was already reinforced before Germany even mobilized making it doubtful that they would somehow change their agenda just because of something like that. Furthermore, I am utterly doubtful of this mediation going forward. Austria had already declared war on Serbia and was on the move. Russia would not have let that stand. It was an obvious political move to portray one side as the aggressor, like stated France moved brilliantly in this area, but it was not genuine. France had given Russia carte blanche to start an European War through actions on the Balkan years before and given full support for them mobilizing. They wanted war, not peace.

I dispute that the constitution of Serbia was broken through the ultimatum. It was just the justification they put forward and rings as false as their proclamation regarding criminal law.

"6. The Royal Government considers it its duty as a matter of course to begin an investigation against all those persons who have participated in the outrage of June 28th and who are in its territory. As far as the cooperation in this investigation of specially delegated officials of the I. and R. Government is concerned, this cannot be accepted, as this is a violation of the constitution and of criminal procedure. Yet in some cases the result of the investigation might be communicated to the Austro-Hungarian officials."

I call bullshit on the constitution and on the criminal procedure. It is an obvious falsehood to reject the ultimatum. The rejection was carefully crafted but looking at it in response to their actions after the assassination, like their appalling investigation, disregard of Austrian feelings and contempt to their questions regarding assistance it rings mocking and not sincere.
Would you then disagree with the Austrian investigation itself?
1614834282316.png

Why is it that Austria sent the ultimatum knowing that the government and state was not responsible or complicit?
Your analogy ingores that Russia was given a carte blanche by France to start a general war through the Balkan long before this crisis. It ignores the act of assassination, ignores that Russia mobilized against Germany before Germany even declared the State of Imminent Danger of War whichs equivalent was already in place in France and Russia, but whatever. You are clearly stuck on a certain story line and bend things your way whatever the case.
France did not give a carte blanche to Russia unlike Germany. From Sleepwalkers itself:-
1614836078577.png

This is whataboutism. You take out one singular instance and extrapolate everything from there. From this one instance you recategorize everything. I disagree with you, on the importance on this instance. I find it wrong to uphold this instance as the defining one. Why is the last bad attempt at peace the deciding one and not the major actions of escalation done by Russia? The first state to go forward with a general mobilization, sends out threats to other countries and ignores the call for peace by the other side. You use a remarkable double-standard. One thing is declared to matter above all and the rest is disregarded.
You pointed out that Germany's plan hinged on fast response
I responded that Britain's plans hinged on only 200,00 men and France's plan hinged on an invasion of the Ruhr, but the adapted, unlike Germany who was committed to war from the 27th and instead was unwilling to adapt the circumstances when both Viviani and sazonov offered peace.
Calling whataboutism is not helping your case here, especially since you did not even reply as to how come Austria, France and Britain were willing to adapt, but Germany was not. You continue to point fingers at Russia, and Serbia, but continue to dissociate Germany of any blame and ignore their unwillingness to adapt and willingness for belligerency. Why is Germany entitled to not adapt and remain with their plan? And why not France? Why not Britain? Why not Austria? Why not the Turks? You can call it Whataboutism if you don't wish to reply properly, but the truth remains, as validated by military historians like Clark Christopher and Max Hastings, the Germans were unwilling to adapt.
If an ultimatum is given, there is no guarantee you can negotiate. Exceptions to the rule do not disprove this. You ignore the earlier attempts by A-H to get Serbia to play nice. They asked for assistance and were essentially laughed out of the office. They asked for the Serbian government to please put a lid on their demagogue press, nationalistic circles, secret organizations etc. In this period Serbia disregarded all of these requests and displayed an abnormal sense of hostility. If this ultimatum was uttered a mere moment after the assassination, there would be some case for A-H going overboard, but they did try and got the middle finger in response.
Exceptions? Every ultimatum was negotiated in the 19th century other than a few select few
The French ultimatum to Spain in 1808 which led to the Bayonne Imprisonment - Negotiations took place.
The Great Power Ultimatum to the Ottomans in 1827 - negotiations took place.
The 1830 Ultimatum to the Ottoman Empire from Russia - negotiations took place.
The 1848 Prussian Ultimatum to Denmark - Negotiations took place.
The 1853-54 Anglo-French ultimatum to Russia - negotiations took place.
The 1861 British ultimatum to the USA - negotiations took place.
The Paraguayan Ultimatum to Argentina during the south American war - negotiations took place.
The 1878 Russian Ultimatum to the Ottoman Empire - negotiations took place.
These are not exceptions.
The Kingdom of Serbia's constitution explicitly stated that the Serbian Press was free and could not be interfered by government. Asking to interfere in the press was a breakage of Serbian constitutional laws. Nonetheless, from sleepwalkers itself:-
1614837336596.png

You are now playing by a double standard. You claimed ultimatum mean no negotiations at all. Seems, they do, but are now shifting it to 'exceptions'.
In regards to your last question, A-H did an investigation, and found their investigation telling them that the Serbian government was not complicit. So yes in a manner of speaking, a middle finger.
They were gearing for war and an acceptance of this was the last chance for Serbia to prevent war. Considering how you so easily put the ball in Germany's camp regarding peace, it is surprising that here you go the opposite way, but wait not surprising. Bias just comes through.
How easily you point fingers at me, even when i have repeatedly pointed out Serbia's, Russia's and France's own faults. If you are only going to be throwing insults mixed in with your responses, then do not even bother replying to this, it gets tedious and quite boring. Let me be clear because your insistence that i have shown bias is becoming ever more old, stale and boring
Serbia was at fault for not checking the backgrounds of its military personnel and some of its ministers.
Russia was at fault for declaring partial mobilization and supporting their nonsensical Pan-slavist views
France was at fault for trying to get involved in what was purely an East European Affair
Britain was at fault for giving off vague messages which emboldened both sides during the Crisis.
But
Austria was at fault for not agreeing to an international commission for investigation
Germany was at fault for deciding to go to war on the 27th.
I dispute that the constitution and criminal law really stood in the way of this. And to use the notion of someone else it kind of sounds like a Serbian problem and not an Austrian one... okay really bad jokes aside, I find the notion of the Austrian being allowed to be overseeing the investigation to break their constitution a highly doubtful statement. International observers and Haag, which did not precede the Serbian constitution are okay but Austrian ones are not. Consider me not convinced. Like stated it was a carefully worded letter meant to portray them as reasonable, while being an outright rejection in truth. They had assurances form Russia and Russia had them from France that they could go for it and therefore did.
I find it funny that the Austrians themselves believed that the answer to the ultimatum was a brilliant one and acceptable by the very man who wrote the ultimatum (Baron Musulin)
And? To repeat something you obviously like to do. It does not matter if all the world thought something at some particular moment. I can cite peopel for the opposing view. There a quotes from Russians condemning this act to hell and state if it happened to their Czar they would crush the puny state. They were troubled over on the one hand condemning all such vile assassinations of nobles and on the other hand to not give up their support for Serbia.
In your whole line of reasoning you ginore the subtext and interests of the person you quote to support your point. A Russina, France etc. statement support a Serbian view is worthless. A statement from Hollwegg shortly after the assassination and not after or in correlation to the ultimatum and the acts of Serbia after this are not applicable. The situation was not static and changed sometimes from day to day and other times form hour to hour. Hardly any one statement was absolute representation of their opinion, because guess what the opinion of these people changed during this crisis.
I see, so Hollwegg's actions in late July are applicable but in early July and late June aren't? I also find it quite funny that you directly omit the neutral views of the Hague, Dutch, Swedes, and Ottomans, as well as Hungary itself which found the assassination as not a cause for war.
It is an example of Serbia really not handling the diplomatic channels to Austria that well. How is this bad faith? We assume that comment was not badly intentioned but considering the bad blood between the two sides and with the recent regicide in Serbia that put the current king into power still in Austrian minds the comment could have been easily be miscontrued. A classical case of something sounding right in the mind but spoke out loud it sounds really bad.
Serbia mishandled itself, this is very true.
And? You like to do that so what? Does this change what they did there? If you piss someone off, things do not change just because you promise to do better. This is not how things work and like stated A-H had more than reasonable cause to be disbelieving regarding these measures. Serbia already did an ivestigation and came up with nothing and now they would have had even more time to hide any kind of evidence. Such obstructiveness is not a good sign and not something an innocent party would do. It portrays a bad picture and that picture is not gone with one promise.
Ah yes.
Serbia agreed to commit a new round of investigation with supervision from the international community, not just solely Austria. Hiding evidence? Austrian investigations themselves did not implicate the Serbian government.
Just their leader and Avis, but hey your standards are not mine. You shift the goal post again and agian. There is a difference between the murder of a common soldier and the assassination of the heir of a monarchy where the monarch retains substantial power. But hey, you ignore such things again and again. So whatever.
Show me where King Peter I was involved
Show me where Nikola Pasic was involved
You tell me that i shifted the goalposts. See what you said?
"Serbian official communications depicted Austrian recriminations as an utterly unprovoked assault on Serbia’s reputation, the appropriate response to which was haughty official silence." -Sleepwalkers p.245
To which i replied that the no investigation, committed by the Austrians themselves as well have not incriminated the Serbian government, other than the military and some members of its intelligence, and 1 minister. The official government was not incriminated, of course they would think it was an unprovoked assault on Serbian reputation.
To which you reply i shift the goalpost.
How is it? May i ask?
There is a difference between the murder of a common soldier and the assassination of the heir of a monarchy where the monarch retains substantial power. But hey, you ignore such things again and again. So whatever.
You can justify the murder of 1 million Serbs in exchange for 2 royals all you want, but as you say, whatever.
In 1904 the Finnish Governor general was assassinated with finnish nationalist organizations implicated. Russia did not invade it calling it a 'wayward' province.
In 1894, the French president was assassinated by an Italian, but France did not invade Italy
In 1882 the Irish assassinated the Chief Secretary of Ireland, and that did not prompt reprisals from London
In 1898 the Empress of Austria was murdered in Swizterland by an italian, but then Austria did not try to invade either the Swiss or Italians
Assassinations are not pretext for war, especially in the modern world.

Nonetheless, the demand you call bullshit on is this: Austrian police can independently travel throughout Serbia and conduct its own investigation
The Serbs accepted the latter, they denied the former. Fun Fact: No country allows foreign police to move independently within their borders.
 
There's no question that letting Germany win was a lose lose in every way for Britain. Not going to war would have meant allowing German hegemony without a fight.
 

N7Buck

Banned
There's no question that letting Germany win was a lose lose in every way for Britain. Not going to war would have meant allowing German hegemony without a fight.
How would Germany winning be a loss for Britain? Britain is not on the Continent, so in terms of defense interests, Germany poses no threat to Britain. Germany would be economically dominant, but they will still need to trade outside of Europe, so would have to allow British trade. Germany is in no position to challenge British colonies, as they don't have a border with India, and their other colonies are weak and far away.
 
How would Germany winning be a loss for Britain? Britain is not on the Continent, so in terms of defense interests, Germany poses no threat to Britain.
Up to a point...

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High_Seas_Fleet

The formation was created in February 1907, when the Home Fleet (Heimatflotte) was renamed as the High Seas Fleet. Admiral Alfred von Tirpitz was the architect of the fleet; he envisioned a force powerful enough to challenge the Royal Navy's predominance.
 
Germany doesn't have unlimited funds, how can German protect itself from Russian or French resurgence with a navy?

Perhaps a peace treaty that requires the French to hand over its fleet, and restrict its Army to 100,000 men? ;)
 
Only it tended to involve the neutral party agreeing to it, right? That agreeing to it bit is key, yes.





Your joking right, truly you are upholding Germanies high principles here "it would be better for you to let us through else you might end being sucked into a 4 year industrialised meatgrinder war that we start, I sure do hope none of your civilians get killed by our troops if they perceive resistance".

I am not sure what point you are trying to make here?
Of course nobody wants a foreign army crossing its country. But if a powerful army wants to cross and has no quarrel with you, you have two options: you can grant that access (usually with stipulations where the foreign army can march, how to get supplies etc.) or you can fight to keep them out. Part of the request for a passage of troops is the inherent threat that they will still (attempt to) cross your country but now won't be nice about it.

And lest you damn the Germans for wanting to cross Belgium and then invading when not granted access, what do you think the sainted Wallies did in WW2 to Persia?

Neutral countries are often faced with unhappy choices when neighbours fight. France was spoiling for a chance to get Alsace-Lorraine back and the Germans were willing to give them that fight. There was no need for Belgium to get involved too. That was their own choice.
 
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