Deleted member 1487
If war in Europe starts in 1914, but ends quickly with a peace deal after a short, sharp conflict due to the Entente mishandling her armies worse and getting defeated in the field, when would then WW1 actually happen?
For the sake of argument the POD is that the BEF is surrounded and Mons and is crushed, which leaves the French 5th army's flank open and it too gets badly defeated. The result is that the Entente sues for peace when Paris then gets surrounded and the French position becomes untenable. Russia doesn't actually lose anything in the deal, because they aren't really having much of their territory occupied by the time the Entente panics and asks for a deal, they just have their armies beaten up a bit in the field, but still have troops in Austrian Galicia. They just have to let the Austrians deal with Serbia. In the west the French, to get the Germans to leave, have to give over some slices of the border regions, transfer some colonies, and remove some of their border forts, while paying a limited indemnity. Belgium has to give up the Congo in return for Germany evacuating their territory. Britain loses nothing because nothing can be enforced on her.
With all of that the Entente is probably going to hit some internal struggles from recrimination for who lost them the war, while Austria has to live with the defeats they suffered to the Russians and the Germans rescuing them. The Czar of course has to deal with the defeat and loss of Serbia, as well as probably the loss of French investments for some time. So would there still be a WW1 ITTL at some point after the 1914 conflict? Nothing is actually resolved for the most part and in some ways tensions are made even worse due to how short the war was and how it relatively leaves all the same powers and conflict intact in the long run. If a WW1 does break out later does anyone have any idea how much the 1914 conflict would influence the various militaries for the next war?
For the sake of argument the POD is that the BEF is surrounded and Mons and is crushed, which leaves the French 5th army's flank open and it too gets badly defeated. The result is that the Entente sues for peace when Paris then gets surrounded and the French position becomes untenable. Russia doesn't actually lose anything in the deal, because they aren't really having much of their territory occupied by the time the Entente panics and asks for a deal, they just have their armies beaten up a bit in the field, but still have troops in Austrian Galicia. They just have to let the Austrians deal with Serbia. In the west the French, to get the Germans to leave, have to give over some slices of the border regions, transfer some colonies, and remove some of their border forts, while paying a limited indemnity. Belgium has to give up the Congo in return for Germany evacuating their territory. Britain loses nothing because nothing can be enforced on her.
With all of that the Entente is probably going to hit some internal struggles from recrimination for who lost them the war, while Austria has to live with the defeats they suffered to the Russians and the Germans rescuing them. The Czar of course has to deal with the defeat and loss of Serbia, as well as probably the loss of French investments for some time. So would there still be a WW1 ITTL at some point after the 1914 conflict? Nothing is actually resolved for the most part and in some ways tensions are made even worse due to how short the war was and how it relatively leaves all the same powers and conflict intact in the long run. If a WW1 does break out later does anyone have any idea how much the 1914 conflict would influence the various militaries for the next war?