What international treaty are you referring too? The only ones im familiar with that covers minority rights are from 89, 92 and 95.
Would really appreciate a link.![]()
I'm not really sure why it's an exagerration to mock your statement. Your basic stance is that any German effort to promote pluralism and minority rights was a machivallian scheme to expand German influence, and that, implicity in your statement, is that German influence is a prelude to bids to annex territories.
The idea that Germans might promote minority rights because it's the right thing to do, or simply have a desire to stop the destruction of centuries-old communities, does not seem to have occurred to you.
But if we go back on topic, lets say a similar treaty is enacted between all league members, and with some sort of League arbitration and sanction articles, would that fit the bill?
So? That makes it right to deny German minorities minority rights? Of course Germany did advocate minority rights because it felt connection to German minorities in East Europe, and I see no reason why this is a bad thing. Germany was and is the state of the Germans after all, and before WW2 one could add "inside or outside of the German state". It is hardly the fault of those minoriteis that the new states suddenly cover the territories they live in, after all! Or to ask more directly: Why have the Polish people in Poland a right to national self-determination and souvereignity, but the German people in Poland no right to autonomy? If you deny the latter, you set the logical precedent to have the former denied.Yes, I have little doubt that if implemented, it would have worked as a instrument of German dominance. It undermines the soveregnity and legitimacy of the newly-created Eastern European states (which were quite shaky anyway) by allowing some of it's citizens self governance and semi-official ties with foreign powers. The only state lacking significant minorities? German one. The most influencial, best educated and organized minority? German one.
It not only felt connected to them but to land their lived on as well, and German minorities organizations were used quite openly as means to push for possibility of reannexation of territories German Empire was forced to let go. So it was somewhat a "bad thing" unless of course you consider enforcing German rule on its eastern neighbours as something good.Of course Germany did advocate minority rights because it felt connection to German minorities in East Europe, and I see no reason why this is a bad thing.
You seem to have a belief that nothing is different from Europe of today and Europe of almost a century ago. For one thing Erasmus students aren't as threatened by harassment by nationalist or racist groups including student's organizations that were widespread in Europe of the past. Furthermore they are not used as spies or for training of paramilitary groups-as they would be in the Europe of 20s or 30s. Thirdly many of students of the past would be more interested in joining nationalist or communist militias then anything resembling Erasmus.Yes, this would be a good start. I'm not sure how it differs from the purported Erasmus Generation, of course.
Because German people were not native in those locations and considerable portion of them were there due to Germanization policies and settlement organised by Prussian and German state ? A considerable portion manifested their opposition to existance of Polish state. Poles represented the native population that was under a repressive regime largely enforced by them by military force, and in part due to violation of international obligations(made in Congress of Vienna for example). No sane government will cede its sovereignty to a group that whose main organisations openly oppose its state's existance and is result of policies aimed at diminishing the native population. An exclusion of colonists, civil servants, military personal, clerks etc. who were sent as part of Germanization could be an option-but it would likely exceed a large number of Germans and likely would be opposed by German minority organizations who were quite militant and nationalist(in general the German Eastern provinces were more nationalistic in nature then the rest of German Empire for several reasons).Why have the Polish people in Poland a right to national self-determination and souvereignity, but the German people in Poland no right to autonomy?
Surely the militias created by German colonists sent by government(and I mean direct colonists that were settled, not for example merchants attracted by state) who fought against Polish uprising in 1848 and those who fought after 1918 knew very well why they received special economic and property privilages in those territories by German government. I mean, nobody in German Empire hid that it was aimed at introducing Germans in and reducing Polish population.It is hardly the fault of those minoriteis that the new states suddenly cover the territories they live in, after all!
Not worse or better than enforcing Polish, Czech or Romanian rule on Germans. Of course those lands which were in majority Polish, Czech or Romanian should have gone to those countries, but that is what minority rights are there for, to cover those who are not the majority. Besides, its the best way if you do not want minorities to (rightfully) radicalise.It not only felt connected to them but to land their lived on as well, and German minorities organizations were used quite openly as means to push for possibility of reannexation of territories German Empire was forced to let go. So it was somewhat a "bad thing" unless of course you consider enforcing German rule on its eastern neighbours as something good.
Bullshit. Germanification efforts by Prussia and the GErman Empire existed, but were utterly ineffective, with only a neglectable trickle of people actually going east. Those Germans who lived in those areas were as native as the Polish. If you say they were not native, maybe you should also advocate all Slavs going back to the Belarussian Swamps they originally came fromBecause German people were not native in those locations and considerable portion of them were there due to Germanization policies and settlement organised by Prussian and German state ?
Understandable, given Polish politics towards them.A considerable portion manifested their opposition to existance of Polish state.
Tsk.Anyway it's kind of non-relevant since Germans did receive minority rights in OTL interwar Poland.
Err, what has that to do with the part of my text you quoted? Somehow, I miss the connection...Surely the militias created by German colonists sent by government(and I mean direct colonists that were settled, not for example merchants attracted by state) who fought against Polish uprising in 1848 and those who fought after 1918 knew very well why they received special economic and property privilages in those territories by German government. I mean, nobody in German Empire hid that it was aimed at introducing Germans in and reducing Polish population.
Ah, yes, trampling on rights in the name of stability and order! Thats very 30s Europe, I agree.The 20s and 30s Europe was far more nationalistic, and dominated by that kind of thinking. Any such right would as Prem Rack pointed out serve actually to destabilize European countries more and perhaps led to earlier war.
If you say they were not native, maybe you should also advocate all Slavs going back to the Belarussian Swamps they originally came from![]()
Hmm, I don't think that by 1918 they were similiar plans in leadership of those communities that would compare the plan to expell 2 million Jews and Poles by German state, or turn majority of Central and Eastern population into de-facto serfs ruled by German minority, or use artificial famine to reduce their population so I would disagree.Not worse or better than enforcing Polish, Czech or Romanian rule on Germans.
300,000 colonists alone by Frederick are not trickle, 154,000 colonists by Bismarck are not trickle either. And that's not counting clerks, soldiers, officials and all kinds of civil servants sent as well. In Pomerania civil servants and similar people made more then half of the German population there.Bullshit. Germanification efforts by Prussia and the GErman Empire existed, but were utterly ineffective, with only a neglectable trickle of people actually going east.
Only if the Germans go to the coasts of Scandinavia, but I think you are confusing origin of Man with origin of statehood. Plus I don't think Slavs originated in Belarussian Swamps ;]If you say they were not native, maybe you should also advocate all Slavs going back to the Belarussian Swamps tyhey originally came from
What Polish politics in 1918 ? Abolishing of opressive rule and priviliages for German ruling class that was minority ?Understandable, given Polish politics towards them.
I find it difficult to imagine that German colonists sent for the sole purpouse manifested by their political leadership as Germanization of Polish lands did not know those territories were not German.Er, what has that to do with the part of my text you quoted? Somehow, I miss the connection...
Ah yes using the cover of demanding rights in the name of destability, annexations and war-something Nazi Germany did in Europe of 30s in Sudetes or Poland.Ah, yes, trampling on rights in the name of stability and order! Thats very 30s Europe, I agree.
If you would prove that actions followed their quotes like in German case ?
Affirmative action or perhaps reperations by Germany for the years of repressive rule ? Surely it would be just to amend the wrongdoings of German state in the past ? Of course I suppose you also would be in for some action helping Sorbs(and their right to self-determination) to deal with the issue of past Germanization right ?
And I dont think there were such plans in the leadership of Weimar Germany, either. Fringe Groups dont count, so dont bother listing nonsense.Hmm, I don't think that by 1918 they were similiar plans in leadership of those communities that would compare the plan to expell 2 million Jews and Poles by German state, or turn majority of Central and Eastern population into de-facto serfs ruled by German minority, or use artificial famine to reduce their population so I would disagree.
Frederick as in Frederick II of Prussia? Thats earlier than most white settlement in the USA. But its good to see how you demontage yourself with such ridicolousness, means I dont need to300,000 colonists alone by Frederick are not trickle, 154,000 colonists by Bismarck are not trickle either. And that's not counting clerks, soldiers, officials and all kinds of civil servants sent as well. In Pomerania civil servants and similar people made more then half of the German population there.
Circular logic?How could colonists be native ?Those Germans who lived in those areas were as native as the Polish.
Its the same thing. If 200 years are not enough to make a population native, than neither will be 1000 years.Only if the Germans go to the coasts of Scandinavia, but I think you are confusing origin of Man with origin of statehood.
Not granting German a minority status (well, de facto), depropriation, economical politics de facto aimed at the German population...What Polish politics in 1918 ? Abolishing of opressive rule and priviliages for German ruling class that was minority ?
Yes, well, thats the point: Those people were not sent. They were born on those lands. Maybe their great-great-xxx-grand parents were originally sent, but thats got nothing to do with the then current generation.I find it difficult to imagine that German colonists sent for the sole purpouse manifested by their political leadership as Germanization of Polish lands did not know those territories were not German.
Consideirng the Sudetenland was conquered by force by forming Czechoslovakia in 1918/19, any reconquest was justified. And as we know, even GB and France agreed on that.Ah yes using the cover of demanding rights in the name of destability, annexations and war-something Nazi Germany did in Europe of 30s in Sudetes or Poland.
Completly irrelevant. Rights are rights, and minorities have the right to official minority status granting them at the very least cultural autonomy and protection from discrimination.Frankly how likely is it that such rights would not be abused for that by Germany ?
Also since you care so much about fairness, how do you propose to deal with the issue of colonists and what tools do you propose to reverse effects of century of discriminating Germanisation ?
The Sorbs did have extensive autonomy rights in Weimar Germany. As for amends, one of Weimar Germanys major problems was reperations.Surely it would be just to amend the wrongdoings of German state in the past ? Of course I suppose you also would be in for some action helping Sorbs(and their right to self-determination) to deal with the issue of past Germanization right ?
Reasoned arguments