Trade during times of war

Of course trade stops between the opposing sides of a war but how does that affect any neutral parties?
 

TFSmith121

Banned
Depends on the geography and hydrography

Of course trade stops between the opposing sides of a war but how does that affect any neutral parties?


If a neutral has a land frontier with belligerent and there is an economic or strategic return on engaging in commerce, they will; obvious example is the USSR and Germany in 1939-41.

Otherwise, if trade requires maritime commerce, it really depends on which belligerent has the advantage at sea.

Neutral rights in terms of trade during wartime have varied greatly over time; given the "pre-1900" status, you really need to narrow down the time frame and (roughly) the region of the world your belligerents call home...

Best,
 
Of course trade stops between the opposing sides of a war but how does that affect any neutral parties?

It depends. Sometimes you can have one side of the war imposing a total ban on trade with the enemy, which means that they will intercept even neutral trade heading towards that country (i.e. unrestricted submarine warfare in WWI). Of course, the development of international maritime law has largely made imposing such blanket embargoes more difficult.
 
Of course?

Dutch merchants made a ton of money off supplying the Spanish army of Flandres during the 80 years war...

Did not know that. You learn something new everyday. But your right. Official trade might stop but under the table and behind the scenes deals will continue. Look at the Continental system of Napoleon. There was still trade between the continent and England, just not the legal kind.
 
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