Why would Gaunt get Aquitaine as an appanage if he's king of Castile as?
That's pretty generous by Richard II.
kasumigenx said:and Aquitaine is given to John of Gaunt as an appanage in 1390
even worse, why would Henry agree to divide up his rightful inheritance to end a war in which he had everything to gain and nothing to lose? not only would that deal be an absolute humiliation and essentially hand an.undeserved victory to France, it destroys English power abroad, which was the entire reason to fight in the first place. it would be like England ending the falklands war in 1982 by offering to hand over not only the falklands but every territory they still owned. even if he had lost the hyw this peace deal would've been viewed as the English bending over backwards to lose spectacularly
Henry Bolingbroke inherits Aquitaine and the ATL version of Henry V inherits both Navarre and Aquitaine..I plan this line to merge with the Bourbons later on, I like an earlier Stuart England so I put it on my timeline.
But why would he give up England? And the French throne (claimed)? To end a war when there was no threat of losing? What's the logic?
But why would he give up England? And the French throne (claimed)? To end a war when there was no threat of losing? What's the logic?
even worse, why would Henry agree to divide up his rightful inheritance to end a war in which he had everything to gain and nothing to lose? not only would that deal be an absolute humiliation and essentially hand an.undeserved victory to France, it destroys English power abroad, which was the entire reason to fight in the first place. it would be like England ending the falklands war in 1982 by offering to hand over not only the falklands but every territory they still owned. even if he had lost the hyw this peace deal would've been viewed as the English bending over backwards to lose spectacularly