These Hills Sing of Saxon Kings

Sooo, if I'm understanding you correctly, something like this?

Key:

Light blue - Scotland
Lighter blue - Norway
Dark blue - French Royal possessions
Royal blue - French vassals not aligned with Champagne
Red - Champagne (French vassals)
Pink - French vassals aligned with Champagne
Yellow - Castile y Leon
Brown - Navarra
Bluish-gray - Aragon
Orange - England
Light Orange - County of Flanders and County of Hainaut (Flanders is in the peerage of France, Hainaut is free. Both held by Godwins.)
Dark green-ish - Connacht (and Meath, High Kingship territory)
Gold-ish - Munster

map.PNG
 
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Thande

Donor
Sooo, if I'm understanding you correctly, something like this?

Yes, that looks about right, maybe just a little less than that in the middle. We'd get most of Lothian, but not all the way up to the Firth of Forth, so the eastern bit looks right.

(At least, I'm guessing so).
 
Right-o! :D

Things are getting more interesting, IMHO. The buildup of Champaignian power is either going ot boil over or simmer down in the next hundred years or so, and it may very well draw England into the fray, now that England has that stake on Flanders...
 
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I didn't realize Zeeland was its own idept. county? I thought it was basically argued over by the County of Holland and the County of Flanders at this point in history...

Even though you are right and Flanders and Holland fought about the control of Zeeland at this time, it was technically an independent county, at this point (i think) the count of Holland was also the count of Zeeland.

Btw, when looking for the History of Zeeland, I noticed that at this point the northern part of Holland (west Friesland) wasn't part of Holland yet, but independent.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Friesland_(historical_region)
 
Really? Hmm. Always thought Zeeland was just a no-zone of sorts...

Anyways, thank you for the input! :D

Jeez, the forum's dead today, I was sure there would be more discussion...
 
Sorry to bump this, but I was wondering...

Any good maps of Europe c.1250 floating around on the net? I've been trying my damndest to find one, but haven't had much luck. Couldn't find any in teh Map Thread either...
 
That's my point. Can't seem to find 1250. And I'm not familiar enough with the mid 13th century European political boundaries to go about making borders without some sort of guide.
 
Thermopylae

England's navy is mostly defensive, in response to the invasion by Canute. I suppose England would commit its navy to fighting the invaders of Scotland...

I suspect the key thing will be how relations are between the two states. If the kings of Scotland & England are on friendly terms then the English fleet would probably be used to support the former against any attack. If the Scots had been raiding, which might well occur at times of English weakness, such as the period of dispute leading to Albert's then there might be tension and conflict.

Given the Scottish expansion into Ireland what is the situation with the northern Islands? They had been Norse but an expanding Scotland coupled with marriage links saw the Scots gradually gain control of the area. Is that happening here or are the Norse holding their own in the north.

I know, but I really had no idea where to put the border. I couldn't find what the border was pre-1066 (the border Harold II likely would have made as the permanent border). :eek:I just stuck it there so I could get this map out. You have any suggestions as to where to put it?

Besides that, how's the rest of the TL look?

@all

Thank you for your criticisms/suggestions! That's how you make a TL better. :D

It would depend largely on the relations between the two nations. I know the Scots managed to claim and control Cumberland for a period during the period of weakness after the Norman invasion but I think this was fairly short term. The British kingdom of Strathclyde which the Scots absorbed about 1016 had some claims in this area but not sure how much they actually controlled by that time. Things were fairly fluid especially in periods of English weakness such as the Danish attacks of Swiard and Canute. Lothian, according to most sources, was transferred to the Scots in about 975 by the English king, apparently against the will of the bulk of the inhabitants, in return for the Scots accepting his overlordship.

Given that England avoids the destruction of the Norman period and is peaceful and secure for most of the time it could be relatively peaceful in the north. Especially since the Scots seem to be doing their expansion into Ireland. This does seem a bit ASB however given the history of conflict in the area. If there is conflict I could see the English regaining most if not all of Lothian, including Edwinburgh and probably taking over at least Cumbria. [Given they have much greater resources in the lack of serious internal weakness or external attack]. This would have a significant impact on the development of Scotland as it would stay Gallic speaking rather than adopt English from Lothian. Further increased by its interests in Ireland.

If there is lasting peace then the borders might stay as they were on the map. [Possibly as the Scots are presumably expanding a lot of effort on keeping their parts of Ireland under control and this might attract the more aggressive elements]. In this case the wealth and culture of Lothian will have effects as OTL but probably diluted a little by the larger Scotland.

Anyway, basically my thoughts on the issue.

Steve

PS With the Champagne/Aquitaine state. While Champagne is the seat of the male line, would it be likely that when it was split the division would be Champagne/Aquitaine and Toulouse rather than Champagne and Aquitaine/Toulouse. The latter would seem to make more sense geographically and culturally although it does give more power possibly to the junior branch. [Since I presume Champagne is more powerful and influential than Toulouse]. I admit geographical continuality was considered less important in those days, despite the poorer communications, but I would have thought the latter combination more practical.
 
I suspect the key thing will be how relations are between the two states. If the kings of Scotland & England are on friendly terms then the English fleet would probably be used to support the former against any attack. If the Scots had been raiding, which might well occur at times of English weakness, such as the period of dispute leading to Albert's then there might be tension and conflict.

The Scots are friendly to the English ITTL. The ruling house owes just about everything it has to English intervention. But this is going to change. When? How? I'm not sure yet. Maybe it won't. Who knows?

Given the Scottish expansion into Ireland what is the situation with the northern Islands? They had been Norse but an expanding Scotland coupled with marriage links saw the Scots gradually gain control of the area. Is that happening here or are the Norse holding their own in the north.

I've basically assumed OTL, except there wasn't a big war over the Orkneys c. 1250s as IOTL. But the Scots may yet see conflict with Norway in the future.

It would depend largely on the relations between the two nations. I know the Scots managed to claim and control Cumberland for a period during the period of weakness after the Norman invasion but I think this was fairly short term. The British kingdom of Strathclyde which the Scots absorbed about 1016 had some claims in this area but not sure how much they actually controlled by that time. Things were fairly fluid especially in periods of English weakness such as the Danish attacks of Swiard and Canute. Lothian, according to most sources, was transferred to the Scots in about 975 by the English king, apparently against the will of the bulk of the inhabitants, in return for the Scots accepting his overlordship.

Given that England avoids the destruction of the Norman period and is peaceful and secure for most of the time it could be relatively peaceful in the north. Especially since the Scots seem to be doing their expansion into Ireland. This does seem a bit ASB however given the history of conflict in the area.

ASB? How? Dermot McMurrough couldn't ask an Englishman as he could IOTL, so I thought he would go to the Scottish king. The Scots were able to exploit the political situation. Dermot didn't marry off his daughter to the Scottish prince thinking he was going to take the throne. Turns out his son dies sooner rather than later, and his son in law has the strength to seize the throne.

Then when Rory O'Connor dies, the O'Neals want the High Kingship back, and the O'Connors look to Scotland for support. Scotland recognizes this opportunity, and takes advantage of it.

ASB? Implausible? How?

PS With the Champagne/Aquitaine state. While Champagne is the seat of the male line, would it be likely that when it was split the division would be Champagne/Aquitaine and Toulouse rather than Champagne and Aquitaine/Toulouse. The latter would seem to make more sense geographically and culturally although it does give more power possibly to the junior branch. [Since I presume Champagne is more powerful and influential than Toulouse]. I admit geographical continuality was considered less important in those days, despite the poorer communications, but I would have thought the latter combination more practical.

Geographical continuity meant little. The split was set by precedent. William XI/I's father was the Duke of Aquitaine AND Count of Champagne, and his father's father was, etc, etc. Tradition, really.
 
Commenting only on the effects of an English win at Hastings:

My butterflies have yet to kick in, so: Sicily DOES become a Norman kingdom again

If anything, William's defeat might amp up Norman activity in the south. A lot of Norman knights who were settling into English estates in OTL are left at loose ends, and they haven't ceased to be formidable fighters just because an English shieldwall stopped them.

So 1066 may not be the "last gasp of the Vikings" - the Normans in the south could match or exceed their OTL achievements. (I keep pondering Basileus Robertos I, the barbarian who restored the Empire and founded the great Norman dynasty.)

Something to bear in mind is that if Harold wins, no one necessarily sees 1066 as a great turning point of history. Not an insignificant year, to be sure - the dramatic beginning of a great king's reign, grist eventually for some unreadable-by-us counterpart to Shakespeare - but not the one medieval date everyone knows.

For that matter, Stamford Bridge may loom larger than Hastings - the end, for once and all, of the Scandinavian threat, the Norman attack being just an odd historical coda, "after which the Normans turned from England to the sunny fields of Italy."

All events far in the past in any case, since this timeline is now well into the 13th century!

-- Rick
 
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ASB? How? Dermot McMurrough couldn't ask an Englishman as he could IOTL, so I thought he would go to the Scottish king. The Scots were able to exploit the political situation. Dermot didn't marry off his daughter to the Scottish prince thinking he was going to take the throne. Turns out his son dies sooner rather than later, and his son in law has the strength to seize the throne.

Then when Rory O'Connor dies, the O'Neals want the High Kingship back, and the O'Connors look to Scotland for support. Scotland recognizes this opportunity, and takes advantage of it.

ASB? Implausible? How?

Sorry, possibly didn't make that clear enough. Just that I didn't think it likely that there would be prolonged peace between England and Scotland for nearly 200 years given how much conflict there was before and, in OTL, after that period. True England is more powerful and doesn't suffer a major period of weakness, which was what prompted most Scots attacks but I would expect some clashes. Also the Welsh, who are in an even weaker position give enough problems to prompt a conquest.

I didn't mean to say the Scots intervention in Ireland was ASB. Could well occur, although a thoughtful English king might not want his northern neighbour getting too powerful. [Not sure what trade activity was in the region at the time but if nothing else the English wouldn't want to be cut out of any markets and trade]. However traditionally foreign influence is often a cause of resentment and Ireland has a long history of opposing foreign control so I could see some conflict ahead in Ireland.

Steve
 
The Scots are friendly to the English ITTL. The ruling house owes just about everything it has to English intervention. But this is going to change. When? How? I'm not sure yet. Maybe it won't. Who knows?

I like this, precisely because it is contrary to the so-familiarity hostility in OTL. And in practical terms, from the English point of view, so long as the Scottish kings restrain some of the endemic lawlessness in the north, they're serving as de facto viceroys.

But - and I may have missed this somewhere - do the English kings make some claim to be Bretwalds, i.e., suzerains of all Britain?

-- Rick
 
Keep up the good work!

I was all set to comment on England adopting a Gaelic succession system (where the successor is selected from the royal clan), when Albert had to go and win a civil war and reset everything. One quibble - I don't see quite why Albert limited his own authority (vis-a-vis the reformed Witan) quite so much, given that he had just won the civil war and was essentially untouchable. I can see him expanding it to dilute the influence of the great nobles (and especially his relatives), and I can see him wanting some collective responsibility regarding taxation, but not transferring so much authority in legislation. OTL's medieval Parliament was much more of an advisory body (at least at first). Or did the Witan already have legislative powers prior to the civil war?

One question - what's going on in Spain? OTL this was the most active period of the Reconquista, with the break-up of the Almoravids in the 1140s, major Christian advances around mid-century, the Muslim resurgence under the Almohads after 1175, their decisive defeat in 1215 and the fall of most of Al-Andalus between 1220 and 1250. The armies of the Albigensian crusade also fought against the Almohads - with a different France and a different Crusade, does Spain still go the same way?
 
Given the Scottish expansion into Ireland what is the situation with the northern Islands? They had been Norse but an expanding Scotland coupled with marriage links saw the Scots gradually gain control of the area. Is that happening here or are the Norse holding their own in the north.
An even bigger question is what happens in the southern islands. As I understand it, OTL the Lords of the Isles (based in the Sudries) were pretty much independent and controlled most of Argyll and Lochaber into the fourteenth century. With the Scots kings controlling Ulster, they'll pretty much have to lock down at least Kintyre and Cowal just to secure their communications - which is likely to draw them into trying to control the West Coast a lot earlier than OTL. Which, in the long run, could lead to an earlier growth of places like Glasgow and Dumbarton (even Campeltown or Inverary) and a general tilt of the Scottish economy and population balance away from the Forth and the eastern strip towards the Clyde and the south-west.

I know the Scots managed to claim and control Cumberland for a period during the period of weakness after the Norman invasion but I think this was fairly short term. The British kingdom of Strathclyde which the Scots absorbed about 1016 had some claims in this area but not sure how much they actually controlled by that time. Things were fairly fluid especially in periods of English weakness such as the Danish attacks of Swiard and Canute. Lothian, according to most sources, was transferred to the Scots in about 975 by the English king, apparently against the will of the bulk of the inhabitants, in return for the Scots accepting his overlordship.
The late history of the kingdom of Strathclyde is the greyest of grey areas - some authorities say the Scots took over around 1016, others that it was still independent into the 1050s. Either way, I don't think it controlled much of Cumbria (which also had significant Norse influence) in the 11th century. Likewise, some sources say the Scots gained Lothian in the 10th century, others not until the battle of Carham in 1016. OTL's Malcolm III did try to claim the Cumbrian parts of old Strathclyde after 1066, (taking advantage of the disorder in England) and various successors tried later during periods of English weakness, but I don't think any of it ever came to anything. The western end of the Anlo-Scottish border seems to have solidified earlier than the eastern.
 
An even bigger question is what happens in the southern islands. As I understand it, OTL the Lords of the Isles (based in the Sudries) were pretty much independent and controlled most of Argyll and Lochaber into the fourteenth century. With the Scots kings controlling Ulster, they'll pretty much have to lock down at least Kintyre and Cowal just to secure their communications - which is likely to draw them into trying to control the West Coast a lot earlier than OTL. Which, in the long run, could lead to an earlier growth of places like Glasgow and Dumbarton (even Campeltown or Inverary) and a general tilt of the Scottish economy and population balance away from the Forth and the eastern strip towards the Clyde and the south-west.

Good point. Did consider this myself but don't know enough about the area. Not to mention the long resistance of the Inverness region which had been Macbeth's heartland and seemed to cling to Pictish identity longer than the rest, at least according to some sources.

The late history of the kingdom of Strathclyde is the greyest of grey areas - some authorities say the Scots took over around 1016, others that it was still independent into the 1050s. Either way, I don't think it controlled much of Cumbria (which also had significant Norse influence) in the 11th century. Likewise, some sources say the Scots gained Lothian in the 10th century, others not until the battle of Carham in 1016. OTL's Malcolm III did try to claim the Cumbrian parts of old Strathclyde after 1066, (taking advantage of the disorder in England) and various successors tried later during periods of English weakness, but I don't think any of it ever came to anything. The western end of the Anlo-Scottish border seems to have solidified earlier than the eastern.

I think that's the big problem with this entire period. Can't seem to find agreement in sources as to whether Carham was 1016 or 1018, let alone on what side the Lothian English were. Most sources do suggest that Lothian was transferred by Edward in ~975 but others do say it was only conquered after Carham. [Have a TL I've played around with which has a POD in which the Lothians forces are with the Scots army but a rebellion by them during Carham turns the battle the other way].

I thought that after the king of Strathclyde died while supporting the Scots in the Carham campaign - some suggestions he was killed by the Scots king - he placed his son on the Strathclyde throne? When he became king of Scotland the two were united.

Have a feeling that during part of the early Norman period Malcolm III [or possibly a later successor?] was recognised as the earl of Cumberland by the Norman king but that was more a case of them recognising him as a earl rather than accepting any Scottish claim to rule the area. One of the problems with the later so called Scottish wars of independence was that much of the fighting was involved with disputes between various nobles, some of whom had lands in both kingdoms. [That's why I added the 'so called' as often the fighting was about local rivalries and frequently very little involved the aims of the two royal houses. Scotland emerged as an independent state but to a degree that was almost an incidental bi-product of the squabbles for power that went on].

Steve
 
I like this, precisely because it is contrary to the so-familiarity hostility in OTL. And in practical terms, from the English point of view, so long as the Scottish kings restrain some of the endemic lawlessness in the north, they're serving as de facto viceroys.

But - and I may have missed this somewhere - do the English kings make some claim to be Bretwalds, i.e., suzerains of all Britain?

-- Rick

Rick

I agree and it would definitely suit the English monarchy if there were peaceful relations. However given how much conflict, from major wars to border raids, occurred in the region, I suspect it is rather unlikely, which was why I used the ASB phase earlier. Between the blood feuds that often developed, the tradition of raiding and the wealth that could be gained from this and the weaknesses of the two governments even if the monarchs wanted peace I think it would be very difficult. The Scots king was I think very much a 1st amongst equals, highly dependent on their own power and prestige. The English monarchy was stronger but its rite was often weak in the north, compounded by the distrust of the north for the southern Wessex based dynasties and also the much stronger Danish presence in this TL. Also disputes between Strathclyde and the Anglos of both Lothian and further south were even older than with the Scots so any Scottish king would have had real problems keeping them under a tight leach. I think Malcolm, or one of his successors, actually imported a lot of Normans as local nobles to strengthen his hold and modernise his state. This may be a lot less likely in this scenario but could mean that the local tribes and clans are even more disorderly.

Steve
 
I like this, precisely because it is contrary to the so-familiarity hostility in OTL. And in practical terms, from the English point of view, so long as the Scottish kings restrain some of the endemic lawlessness in the north, they're serving as de facto viceroys.

But - and I may have missed this somewhere - do the English kings make some claim to be Bretwalds, i.e., suzerains of all Britain?

-- Rick

Thank you very much! :D If you have read "Coronation of the Hun", you'll know I'm quite fond of the... historically unusual. ;)

The idea of suzerainity over all Britain is still in its infancy, however ever since Harold Godwinson intervened in that war in Scotland, it is an idea which has been growing (very slowly).

Keep up the good work!

Yes, sir! :D

I was all set to comment on England adopting a Gaelic succession system (where the successor is selected from the royal clan), when Albert had to go and win a civil war and reset everything. One quibble - I don't see quite why Albert limited his own authority (vis-a-vis the reformed Witan) quite so much, given that he had just won the civil war and was essentially untouchable. I can see him expanding it to dilute the influence of the great nobles (and especially his relatives), and I can see him wanting some collective responsibility regarding taxation, but not transferring so much authority in legislation. OTL's medieval Parliament was much more of an advisory body (at least at first). Or did the Witan already have legislative powers prior to the civil war?

Albert I was proud of his Anglo-Saxon traditions. The Witan has historically been a counterweight to royal power, and as such Albert I didn't want to change that. (Besides, he really didn't need to. Man could have gotten away with murdering his mother after the Battle of Somerset and people would have still loved him)

And the "legislative power" of the Witan is more a formality than anything, not really different from what it has been all along. ("Hey king, we suggest you make this law, and if not that's fine because you DO have the final say...")

One question - what's going on in Spain? OTL this was the most active period of the Reconquista, with the break-up of the Almoravids in the 1140s, major Christian advances around mid-century, the Muslim resurgence under the Almohads after 1175, their decisive defeat in 1215 and the fall of most of Al-Andalus between 1220 and 1250. The armies of the Albigensian crusade also fought against the Almohads - with a different France and a different Crusade, does Spain still go the same way?

Basically, assume OTL. I couldn't find any reason why it would be TOO divergent...

An even bigger question is what happens in the southern islands. As I understand it, OTL the Lords of the Isles (based in the Sudries) were pretty much independent and controlled most of Argyll and Lochaber into the fourteenth century. With the Scots kings controlling Ulster, they'll pretty much have to lock down at least Kintyre and Cowal just to secure their communications - which is likely to draw them into trying to control the West Coast a lot earlier than OTL. Which, in the long run, could lead to an earlier growth of places like Glasgow and Dumbarton (even Campeltown or Inverary) and a general tilt of the Scottish economy and population balance away from the Forth and the eastern strip towards the Clyde and the south-west.

Interesting! I hadn't thought of that. Not to mention the Scots are going to need a navy to maintain said communications, which in turn creates none other than a Scottish maritime tradition. Could prove interesting in the coming centuries.

The late history of the kingdom of Strathclyde is the greyest of grey areas - some authorities say the Scots took over around 1016, others that it was still independent into the 1050s. Either way, I don't think it controlled much of Cumbria (which also had significant Norse influence) in the 11th century. Likewise, some sources say the Scots gained Lothian in the 10th century, others not until the battle of Carham in 1016. OTL's Malcolm III did try to claim the Cumbrian parts of old Strathclyde after 1066, (taking advantage of the disorder in England) and various successors tried later during periods of English weakness, but I don't think any of it ever came to anything. The western end of the Anlo-Scottish border seems to have solidified earlier than the eastern.

True. Which is why I basically assumed the borders of c.1066. It was so fluid, might as well choose something.

I think that's the big problem with this entire period. Can't seem to find agreement in sources as to whether Carham was 1016 or 1018, let alone on what side the Lothian English were. Most sources do suggest that Lothian was transferred by Edward in ~975 but others do say it was only conquered after Carham. [Have a TL I've played around with which has a POD in which the Lothians forces are with the Scots army but a rebellion by them during Carham turns the battle the other way].

I thought that after the king of Strathclyde died while supporting the Scots in the Carham campaign - some suggestions he was killed by the Scots king - he placed his son on the Strathclyde throne? When he became king of Scotland the two were united.

Have a feeling that during part of the early Norman period Malcolm III [or possibly a later successor?] was recognised as the earl of Cumberland by the Norman king but that was more a case of them recognising him as a earl rather than accepting any Scottish claim to rule the area. One of the problems with the later so called Scottish wars of independence was that much of the fighting was involved with disputes between various nobles, some of whom had lands in both kingdoms. [That's why I added the 'so called' as often the fighting was about local rivalries and frequently very little involved the aims of the two royal houses. Scotland emerged as an independent state but to a degree that was almost an incidental bi-product of the squabbles for power that went on].

Steve

I know. Record keeping was notoriuosly bad during the Early Medieval Ages, and a lot concerning political boundaries et al has been left to the speculations of folks like you and I. :(

Rick

I agree and it would definitely suit the English monarchy if there were peaceful relations. However given how much conflict, from major wars to border raids, occurred in the region, I suspect it is rather unlikely, which was why I used the ASB phase earlier. Between the blood feuds that often developed, the tradition of raiding and the wealth that could be gained from this and the weaknesses of the two governments even if the monarchs wanted peace I think it would be very difficult. The Scots king was I think very much a 1st amongst equals, highly dependent on their own power and prestige. The English monarchy was stronger but its rite was often weak in the north, compounded by the distrust of the north for the southern Wessex based dynasties and also the much stronger Danish presence in this TL. Also disputes between Strathclyde and the Anglos of both Lothian and further south were even older than with the Scots so any Scottish king would have had real problems keeping them under a tight leach. I think Malcolm, or one of his successors, actually imported a lot of Normans as local nobles to strengthen his hold and modernise his state. This may be a lot less likely in this scenario but could mean that the local tribes and clans are even more disorderly.

Steve

Way I see it Scotland has for almost five/six whole generations been ruled by a (mostly) pro-English king. The Scots are currently happy with their borders. They have control of Cumbria, the English king doesn't mind it, and the Earldom of Northumbria is controlled by relatives of the English king. So border problems really aren't so great ITTL. But you're right, everlasting peace is ASB. But it has been less than 200 years with no Scots-English wars, give it a little more time. ;)

(I keep pondering Basileus Robertos I, the barbarian who restored the Empire and founded the great Norman dynasty.)

Now THAT is a COOL idea! :eek: I wish I had integrated it. :( I might have been able to work it in as late as the c.1190s, but damn it you were too late! :mad: ;)

Could make for a cool TL.
 
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