I'm taking on two TL's at once! Why, you ask? Quite simply because I am accustomed to c. 2000 year detailed TLs, and starting at 1242 just won't satisfy that... itch. 
I have the most basic ideas fleshed-out. William is utterly defeated at Hastings, and he is forced to remain content with Normandy. Beyond that, I know that Harold ought die c. late 1070s-mid 1080s, and more than likely pass the kingdom to his son by Edith Swanneck, Godwine.
But what was Harold's domestic policy like (besides beating back Normans and Vikings? ) Wikipedia is frustratingly vague about it. Although one article puts forward the hypothesis that England might have become more culturally and economically important, as the Normans preferred their French possesions and in a sense left England to rot. I personally am in disagreement with this, but I need the opinions of someone more well-versed in English history.
I figure France will actually consolidate peacefully, and perhaps as early as the mid 1300s. Phillip II would have basically taken full control of Northern France as he did IOTL, and because the HYW is avoided altogether, France is united c. mid-1300s.
England is united under the Saxon kings, but I'm not sure as to how the Saxons approach Scotland and Ireland. Was there a Saxon precedent for dealings with the Scots and Irish?
And I can't seem to recall, but did the HYW have any sort effect on the politics of the HRE or Italy? I somehow doubt it, but I just wanted to check.
Basically, this is your dumping ground for any idea you have in your head. Discussion and debate is encouraged!
I have the most basic ideas fleshed-out. William is utterly defeated at Hastings, and he is forced to remain content with Normandy. Beyond that, I know that Harold ought die c. late 1070s-mid 1080s, and more than likely pass the kingdom to his son by Edith Swanneck, Godwine.
But what was Harold's domestic policy like (besides beating back Normans and Vikings?
) Wikipedia is frustratingly vague about it. Although one article puts forward the hypothesis that England might have become more culturally and economically important, as the Normans preferred their French possesions and in a sense left England to rot. I personally am in disagreement with this, but I need the opinions of someone more well-versed in English history. I figure France will actually consolidate peacefully, and perhaps as early as the mid 1300s. Phillip II would have basically taken full control of Northern France as he did IOTL, and because the HYW is avoided altogether, France is united c. mid-1300s.
England is united under the Saxon kings, but I'm not sure as to how the Saxons approach Scotland and Ireland. Was there a Saxon precedent for dealings with the Scots and Irish?
And I can't seem to recall, but did the HYW have any sort effect on the politics of the HRE or Italy? I somehow doubt it, but I just wanted to check.
Basically, this is your dumping ground for any idea you have in your head. Discussion and debate is encouraged!
