The Spanish Empire partitioned (option 3)

WI Charles II of Spain died in childhood (let's say in 1670) and Spain and its possessions had been partitioned according to the secret Franco-Austrian agreement? This is what things were supposed to go like:

1) The French were to receive Naples (without the Presidi), Sicily, the Spanish Burgundian possessions (the Southern Netherlands, Franche-Comte and Charolais), Navarre, and the Philippines.

2) The Spanish throne was to go to emperor Leopold I. Spain was to keep its colonies and, from its European possessions, Sardinia and the Presidi.
 
What would be the English and the Dutch answer? Would they just accept it, or a war is possible?

Charles I is on the throne of England, so I don't think they'll see any problems from there. As for the Dutch, they'd yet to prove themselves against Louis XIV and there's even a pro-French party among them. Their opposition will be neither loud nor taken seriously.
 
That would certainly make things interesting, but a map would be helpful.

OK, here's a map of Europe in 1600. Of course a lot of things changed in 70 years - the Spanish lost Portugal (though they kept Ceuta), Roussillon (the strip of territory along the northern border of Catalonia, including Perpignan) and part of the Southern Netherlands. The Presidi are those spots on the coast of Tuscany, Franche-Comte is the territory between France and Switzerland, Charolais is the enclave west of it, Navarre is that unnamed part of Spain north of Aragon and Old Castile. I don't need to tell you where Naples, Sicily, Sardinia, the Southern Netherlands, and the Philippines are. Any questions?

Oh yeah, and I forgot to mention that the Habsburgs were to keep Milan.
 
Charles I is on the throne of England, so I don't think they'll see any problems from there. As for the Dutch, they'd yet to prove themselves against Louis XIV and there's even a pro-French party among them. Their opposition will be neither loud nor taken seriously.

This could prove disasterous for the Dutch. Only two years later the French attack together with the English, Cologne and Munster the Netherlands. WIth the southern Netherlands in French hands it would be a lot harder for the Dutch to defeat them. So the entire Netherlands might fall into French hands. (I see no reason why they would stop at the rhine border, I am certain that the natural border of France is suddenly someplace else, the Wolga for example). Also Spain was an important ally against the French, would Spain still be willing to help in this situation?
 
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