The Spanish Armada Wins-what next?

RalofTyr

Banned
So from what I've read in this thread so far; the Spanish Armada winning would be near an act of God because the English-Fleet and ships were so superior to them.

If they won, the Spanish would either invade and try to take London, or they leave England alone and consolidate in the Neatherlands.

If the Spanish did land, victory would be assured as they outnumbed the English ten-to-one. (if numbers won wars, mathematicians would be kings)

The extent of their victory depends on how many survived the sea-battle and the superiority of English cannons.

It's likely Elizabeth will lose her head, even if she converts to Catholicism.

I don't think any Spanish victory at sea would be decisive; my instinct is telling me that if the English lost, it would just be a battle and their most likely would be more battles at sea.

Not all, but a large force lands near the Thames and marches on London; it's a fortified city and a siege will last months; perhaps well into winter: it could be that the English win the battle at sea well before London falls, cutting off their supply-line. But then you have an army of hungry Spanish in the English country side right at high harvest; they could take up and store provisions for a long-siege.

I bet there would be a lot of worried English government officials that Catholic sympathizers would open the gates; whether real or imagined, the London authorities would crack down on the Catholics.

Despite being Catholic, I doubt the English Catholics would give much support to the Spanish; they are foreigners and the English were very xenophobic at that time.

The Spanish Inquisition in England? Could The Church of England fall the same way the Cathars did?
 
Some points of clarification

The Spanish Armada was quite able to defet the English fleet, the real problem was the micromanagement of Philip II in detriment of the fleet commanders.

The Spanish Tercios were no match for the English militia defending Southern England.

London had medieval fortifications and was undefendable.

Converting England back to Catholicism was never the goal, the main objective was to cut off the supply of resources to the rebels in the Low Countries.

England's anti-Hispanism was only casued by religious differences after the Protestant Reform since Portugal and Castille were suitable allies during the Tudor Era.

A Catholic England would reach an agreement with Caholic Spain about the New World in the same way as other nations did at the time, using the Church Tribunals (like the Treaty of Tordesillas).

Finally the Inquisition had only two variables: the Roman Inquisition (Papal) and the Spanish Inquisition (Castilean). The Church did not just send inquisitors to any country, the monarch of each country had to petition to the Pope for a group of inquisitors to be sent. Even more, don't forget that the Pope granted Castile its own inquisition, not becasue they were fighting heresy in Spain but because they were fighting moors and jews (quite different).

Hope this clarifies certain misconceptions I have read in the post and keep up the debate.
 
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