How exactly would the post-World War II peace settlement look if France doesn't fall in 1940 or afterwards and if Hitler and the Nazis will successfully get overthrown by the Schwarze Kapelle in 1941?
To elaborate on this:
Maurice Gamelin decides that sending the French strategic reserve to the Low Countries in 1940 is a bad move and thus decided to keep it at Rheims as per the original plan. Thus, the German advance through the Ardennes is successfully halted, as in another German advance through Belgium. Afterwards, the front lines stabilize in the Ardennes and in northern Belgium (with Germany occupying eastern Belgium and all of the Netherlands). In the winter of 1940-1941, in an attempt to break this stalemate, Hitler orders another offensive. While this offensive initially makes some successes and results in the Germans capturing the rest of Belgium and parts of northern France, the Germans fail to get to Paris. Afterwards, Britain and France launch their first large-scale counteroffensive in World War II and successfully push the Germans out of northern France and out of western Belgium. This debacle convinces the Schwarze Kapelle that they should try overthrowing Hitler and the Nazis as soon as possible. Thus, the Schwarze Kapelle "gears into action" and successfully overthrows Hitler and the Nazis in either mid-1941 or late 1941 (with Hitler and all of the other big Nazis being either killed or imprisoned by the Schwarze Kapelle).
After its successful coup, the Schwarze Kapelle officially (and publicly) announces that the war will continue but simultaneously privately sends peace feelers to Britain and France. Basically, the Schwarze Kapelle will want to keep as much of its territorial gains as possible, a fact which it will make crystal-clear to Britain and France. Also, though, the Schwarze Kapelle will tell Britain and France that Germany is prepared to endure World War I-style casualties if it does not get a peace deal that it can live with. Thus, my question here is this--can the Schwarze Kapelle and the Anglo-French alliance come to a peace deal which both sides can live with? If so, then exactly how would such a peace deal look like? Also, how long is it going to take for them to reach such a peace deal (if at all)? (After all, please remember that there is no armistice in this scenario; rather, the war continue at the same time that Germany, Britain, and France secretly pursue peace negotiations.)
(Also, though, here is some additional information for you--Mussolini still invades Greece in late 1940 and gets bogged down in a stalemate there. Afterwards, in the winter of 1940-1941, Horthy and Stalin secretly agree to partition Romania between the two of them, with the Carpathian Mountains being the dividing line. Shortly afterwards, Hungary and the Soviet Union jointly invade Romania. However, Stalin doesn't stop there--rather, he also invades Bulgaria shortly afterwards. In addition to this, Stalin offers Horthy and Mussolini a secret deal to partition Yugoslavia and Greece (for Greece, excluding Hungary) between them. Due to him still being stuck in a stalemate in Greece, Mussolini reluctantly accepts Stalin's offer (as does Horthy). Thus, by late 1941, eastern Romania, Bulgaria, eastern Greece, Serbia, and eastern Bosnia are under Soviet control while Albania, western Greece, Kosovo, Montenegro, western Bosnia, Croatia, and Slovenia are under Italian control and while Transylvania are the Hungarian-majority parts of Serbia (in Vojvodina) are under Hungarian control.
Thus, Britain and France are also going to need to somehow deal with the "aggressive trio" (Mussolini, Horthy, and Stalin) after they finish fighting Germany.)
Anyway, any thoughts on this?