Me and a friend are planning a TL, mostly for our own amusement, where Russia develops, economically and politically, a lot faster in the decades pre-WW1. One of our possible PoDs is Alexander II surviving his assassination and surviving to implement the Duma (although this isn't definite).
We also plan of Russia being victorious in the Russo-Japanese War due to this, gaining control of Manchuria and gaining a warm water port on the Pacific.
The question is, how much does a much stronger Russia affect the balance of power in Europe? To have equal sides ITTL WW1, the best we can come up with is a France-Austria-Russia alliance versus England, Germany, Italy, Japan and the Ottomans (we aren't sure about the Balkans yet). Problem is, this isn't particularly plausible considering the Alliance between Germany, Austria and Italy signed in 1882, just one year after Alexander II was, IOTL, assassinated.
So, how is the balance of power in Europe affected by a much stronger Russia (We don't have specific figures, just assume much greater industrial production, greater coal production, more railroads, and maybe a slightly greater population, as well as a much more modern army, better trained and equipped). Any comments are much appreciated.
Thanks