Given that all modern Romance languages are variants of Vulgar Latin, a Koiné can be easily created during the Middle Ages. The most obvious way to do it is political union, however, another interesting way to achieve it is by religion; WI the Church promotes literacy and translate the Vulgate Bible into a New Latin that most people can understand?
What do you mean by Koine.
 
What do you mean by Koine.

A koiné is a standardized form that is developed from similar, intelligible dialects.

In the case of Vulgar Latin, a koiné would have to emerge pretty early on in the post-Roman period. The tricky thing is that, the circumstances that would best allow this - political union - would likely also reinforce Classical Latin. If the Roman Empire never collapses in the west, I'm not sure how Vulgar Latin would gain enough prestige to become official and displace Classical Latin.
 
Koine is simply the common (that is literally what Koine means) and relatively mutually intelligble dialect of Greek that most any greek speaker could understand.
I know that. What I'm asking is if yo're looking for a language directly descended from Vulgar Latin or a unified Latin Language for all Latin countries from Portugal to Romania, As I understand it, there were minor Greek languages as late as the 20th century. China, which was unified for long atretches of time is multilingual, Even if Rome had stayed unified, I doubt regional differences wouldn't develop.
 
A koiné is a standardized form that is developed from similar, intelligible dialects.

In the case of Vulgar Latin, a koiné would have to emerge pretty early on in the post-Roman period. The tricky thing is that, the circumstances that would best allow this - political union - would likely also reinforce Classical Latin. If the Roman Empire never collapses in the west, I'm not sure how Vulgar Latin would gain enough prestige to become official and displace Classical Latin.
Classical Latin and Vulgar Latin weren't different languages though. Classical Latin was just the polished version used by the Roman upper class.
 
So I guess this is probably ASB? What if we confined the standard to one area? Like say, Italy or Gaul decided to make one standard in their area alone before they diverge too much?
 
Wouldn't that just be Italian or French?

Well technically, Italian and French are one of the vulgar Latin dialects spoken in what is now Italy and France evolved info after they branched off from Vulgar Latin.. at least, that's the way I see it summarized. I'm talking about possibly in those areas, standardizing the dialects to the people of that area before they diverged off and became their own language group. Languages change over time but the romance languages all did evolve and became their thing, I'm wondering if it's possible to standardize them and stop too much changes from happening to the point where the modern vulgar dialects evolve so much so as they did now and get seen as their own languages. If that makes senese.. Basically like standardizing what Vulgar Latin in Gaul before it evolved (and arguably became) the furthest language from it's Latin roots, etc. And as one Vulgar Latin seems out of the question, making it pertain probably only to a certain area.

Just curious if this is possible. Perhaps I'll reedit my op as I may get confusing..
 
Well technically, Italian and French are one of the vulgar Latin dialects spoken in what is now Italy and France evolved info after they branched off from Vulgar Latin.. at least, that's the way I see it summarized. I'm talking about possibly in those areas, standardizing the dialects to the people of that area before they diverged off and became their own language group. Languages change over time but the romance languages all did evolve and became their thing, I'm wondering if it's possible to standardize them and stop too much changes from happening to the point where the modern vulgar dialects evolve so much so as they did now and get seen as their own languages. If that makes.. Basically like standardizing what Vulgar Latin in Gaul before it evolved (and arguably became) the furthest language from it's Latin roots, etc.

Just curious if this is possible. Perhaps I'll reedit my op as I may get confusing..
1) It was called Italy under the Romans too.

2) The Latin European countries cover around 2 million km2. I doubt it's possible to maintain the unity of Latin. Especially given the geographiv barriers separating them (the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Slavic countries).
 
1) It was called Italy under the Romans too.

2) The Latin European countries cover around 2 million km2. I doubt it's possible to maintain the unity of Latin. Especially given the geographiv barriers separating them (the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Slavic countries).

Okay, so obviously it's impossible to maintain the unity of latin, but what about making what would become the romance languages standardized to their respective regions and people before they evolve to become the romance languages after fall of the WRE? It doesn't have to be every area, just at least one area/region or something decides to standardize their language before let's say.. the end of the 6th century? All languages still change but changes can be slowed down. Again, not every area, but at least one former area/region, etc where Latin was once spoken during the RE.
 
In an old scenario (now dead :( ), I used a 'Cultural Latin', a type of reformed Clasical Latin. It had 'article', prepositions, but not cases, SVO order, etc. (for example). This cultural latin was spoken by the upper class from diferents 'Roman Empires' (Lusitanian Roman Empire; Terracones Roman Empire; Narbones Roman Empire; Italian Roman Empire; Pannonian Roman Empire, etc.); the lesser class spoken non-educated language ('romance' or creolle with strong latin influence, specially in the 'Indias' [OTL America, of course]).
 
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