Stalin's Omission: No Berlin Blockade of 1948

raharris1973

Gone Fishin'
In OTL the Berlin Blockade was an uncharacteristically aggressive move
by Stalin, provoked by the western powers currency reform in Western
Germany. It was a very non-strategic move as well, as it was silly to
think currency reform could have been undone once it was a fait
accompli. So, what if Stalin reacted differently to the German
situation. The easiest response just would have been to accelerate the
establishment of the GDR in East Germany. Measures aimed at directly
undermining the economy might also be more more appropriate and less
of a non-sequitir than the blockade-style pressure against the west. So, western communist parties, including in Germany, could continue their campaigns of strikes and
sabotage. To undermine the western deutschemark, Stalin could attempt a
campaign of strikes and counterfeiting, attacking the German economy
directly, instead of attacking the western decision process.. These
aggressive moves aren't likely to work any better than OTL because of
western counter-measures, but what are the consequences of no Berlin
Blockade and toe-to-toe face down with the western powers with all its associated military posturing and talk of armed convoys and aerial brinkmanship?
 
No NATO ?

Hmmm, could no Berlin Blockade have meant no NATO ? The 1948 blockade was 1 of the key triggering incidents for the establishment of the North Atlantic Alliance, so WI Stalin hadn't pushed that far ?
 
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