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In another thread, it was mentioned that France was more antisemitic then Germany and yet the Holocaust occurred in the latter. The obvious explanation for this is that Germany's defeat in WW1 generated the "need" for a scapegoat, manifested in the stab-in-the-back myths, that was not "needed" in France.

So would we be likely to see similar myths and scapegoating on the same scale in France if they had lost the war? Would such myths likely be extant in Britain as well?

Obviously this does not necessitate a Hitler figure coming to power. They would be in fundamentally different contexts after all, and plenty of dictators exploited antisemitism whilst being reluctant to act on it once in power(with Franco actually sabotaging Hitlers efforts to round up Jews).
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