Spanish Succession pre 1700

Prior to the Bourbon's female`s could ascend to the throne of Spain.
However, with two competing claims I am trying to determine who would have the most legal right to ascend under the following set of conditions

The sovereign (King)

has two legitimate children during his lifetime.

one son (the elder of the two) and one daughter

both will marry prior to the then sovereign`s death, but the son will pre-decease his father. However, he will be survived by a single daughter...grand-daughter to the reigning sovereign.

On the reigning sovereign`s death. His daughter is married has a small family that includes at least two sons as successors. The grand-daughter remains unmarried on the sovereigns death but is in the 17-23 age bracket.

I`m not sure how much proximity of blood would figure into the succession.

The King ( who has just died ) is closest by blood to his actual daughter, but his grand-daughter is as close to or closer by the same measure to the former "Pr of Asturias" who has pre-deceased the sovereign, and who would have been expected to succeed on his father's death.

In writing this I think I have actually worked out how it would go, but I'll see where the general consensus would lie.

Remember this is under traditions and laws established prior to 1700.
 
The daughter of the king is only an Infanta while his grandaughter is the Princess of Asturia as heiress of her father. Primogeniture with male preference is the rule not blood proximity.
The Princess of Asturia will became Queen at the death of her grandfather while her aunt will became heiress presuntive until the birth of a child of the new Queen
 
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