Spanish Concession in China

I believe the most reasonable POD for this timeline is if Spain won in the Pacific during the Spanish-American War, where exactly would Spain's concession in China be? Maybe parts of Southern China the French don't get to first.
 
I believe the most reasonable POD for this timeline is if Spain won in the Pacific during the Spanish-American War, where exactly would Spain's concession in China be? Maybe parts of Southern China the French don't get to first.

Defeating the USA requires decades of pod.

With regards to Chinese concession, you have to make it clear. Why does Spain need any concessions from China?
 
Defeating the USA requires decades of pod.

With regards to Chinese concession, you have to make it clear. Why does Spain need any concessions from China?

Good question. The markets in the concessions were already gone by that time. France occupied the markets of Guangdong and Fujian. Britain occupied the richest places, Zhejiang and Jiangsu, and the Yangtze in general. Germany 'held' Shandong, while Russia maintained control over Manchuria.

Sure, there's Beijing and Tianjin, but, honestly, who wants that? The powers would dislike it because it's literally where the emperor is, which gives (Spain) the most control over China.

By the way, how does winning the Spanish-American war lead to concessions in China? Is the Philippines supposed to serve as a naval base? Then what's the purpose of the concession if they can trade easily from the Philippines? (Remember, the purpose of the concessions in China was to trade!)
 
Good question. The markets in the concessions were already gone by that time. France occupied the markets of Guangdong and Fujian. Britain occupied the richest places, Zhejiang and Jiangsu, and the Yangtze in general. Germany 'held' Shandong, while Russia maintained control over Manchuria.

Sure, there's Beijing and Tianjin, but, honestly, who wants that? The powers would dislike it because it's literally where the emperor is, which gives (Spain) the most control over China.

By the way, how does winning the Spanish-American war lead to concessions in China? Is the Philippines supposed to serve as a naval base? Then what's the purpose of the concession if they can trade easily from the Philippines? (Remember, the purpose of the concessions in China was to trade!)

I see spain getting no benefits in getting something from China. Both Spain and China are or were the status quo in the region. And they were already trading and interacting hundreds of years without any land concession from one another before Russia, France, Britain, Germany even had a presence in the region.

Nor can I can connect the result of Spanish American war with Chinese concessions.
 
I see spain getting no benefits in getting something from China. Both Spain and China are or were the status quo in the region. And they were already trading and interacting hundreds of years without any land concession from one another before Russia, France, Britain, Germany even had a presence in the region.

Nor can I can connect the result of Spanish American war with Chinese concessions.

Agreed on that (both points).
 
If Spain retained a strong position in the Pacific I could see them wanting a slice of China in the aftermath of the Boxer Rebellion. They could probably end up with whatever Italy or Austria received.
 
Remember that Italy- a more formidable power than Spain, arguably - couldn't wrangle a concession from China. Weak as the Qing were, I doubt a Spain reeling from a costly victory would be in any position to overcome even cursory Chinese resistance.
 
If Spain retained a strong position in the Pacific I could see them wanting a slice of China in the aftermath of the Boxer Rebellion. They could probably end up with whatever Italy or Austria received.

Italy, Austria, Belgium, the United States, and if I remember right, France, all did not get concessions.
 
I once wrote in my TL where Spain has its own version of Hong Kong; its the Chusan Archipelago (and a piece of mainland, too)
 
And they were already trading and interacting hundreds of years without any land concession from one another before Russia, France, Britain, Germany even had a presence in the region.

Not true in Russia's case.
China's contact with Spain is only one century older than its contact with Russia.

Italy, Austria, Belgium, the United States, and if I remember right, France, all did not get concessions.

They got concessions in Tientsin.
 
Not true in Russia's case.
China's contact with Spain is only one century older than its contact with Russia.

The point is that as long as you have the Philippines under Spain, there is no real need for a port in China. The Spanish have a sphere of influence in the Far East already, and lose it only as they as an empire collapse.
 
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