Spainish Empire Question

The year is 1825, The Rebellions are over,
Simon Bolivar is the president of a Independent Gran Columbia, while in the South Juan Martin is the president of a Independent Argentina/Chile Federation.
In the Middle is Spanish Peru, [which includes OTL Bolivia/northern Chile]
Farther north Mexico is again firmly under control of the new Viceroy.

?So what effect does the retention of the Empire [or a large part thereof] Have on the whole Carlist Rebellions that plagued Spain in the latter 1800's?

And ?do Whe just get a round of rebellions in the late 1800's as Peru and Mexico join [OTL's] Cuban and Philippine rebellions.?
 
I like it :) I just can't think of an answer right now !

Spain would certainly have to keep a naval presence in the Pacific, and this would keep the Philippines as a valuable strategic asset, and could well see Spanish involvement in Hawaii

I suppose there is also the question of California, and beyond too...

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 
I suppose there is also the question of California, and beyond too...

Would a US-Spanish war be more or less probable in this situation?

IMO the US will want to settle Texas, and if anything the continued Bourbon presence will inflame the US. OTOH, it's less likely that Texas arises.

Or is it? ISTM that New Spain will be no less prone to rebellion than OTL Mexico...
 
IIRC Spain granted the first permissions to live in Tejas to US citizens, on the basis of conversion to Catholicism (never enforced). Mexico inherited this position, and as with all inherited positions it was weaker for it

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 
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