Spain Sells the Philippines to Spain

Well, that would the point, eh? Spain was/is using the Philippines to off-load New World silver into the Asian markets in exchange for Asian goods (spices & such). Portugal on the other hand already has plenty of ports and outposts in the area; the Philippines could then be a way to expand their operations beyond the Indonesians area. What's unprofitable for Spain could be profitable for Portugal; Spain would need to drop the colony to save cash, but would still expect something in return for the islands. Perhaps smaller Brazil? A revised Treaty of Tordesillas?

There's historical precident for Spain selling territory to Portugual, at least according to Wiki:

The Treaty of Zaragoza stated the continuation of the meridian of Tordesillas in the opposite hemisphere, 297.5 marine leagues ( about 1,487 kilometers / 892 miles ) east of the Maluku. The Philippines stood on the Spanish side, while the Maluku Islands were provided by Spain to Portugal over the payment of 350,000 gold ducats[9]. The treaty had also a safeguard stating that, if at any time the emperor wished to restore the deal, the sale would be undone and each "will have the right and the action as that is now." Obviously, this never happened, because the emperor needed desperately the Portuguese money to finance the war of the League of Cognac against its arch-rival Francis I of France.

The Portuguese delegation sent by king João III included, among others, António de Azevedo Coutinho, Diogo Lopes de Sequeira, Lopo Homem and Simão Fernandes. Plenipotentiaries were, from Portugal, António Azevedo Coutinho and from Spain Count Mercurio Gâtine, Garcia de Loyosa Bishop of Osma, and Garcia de Padilla, commander of Calatrava.

Posterior measurements proved that, according to the exact anti-meridian of Tordesillas, the Maluku and also the Philippines were in the Portuguese hemisphere.

According to Wiki at least, the Philippines should, by right of the Treaty of Zaragossa that set the anti-meridian to Tordesillas, be Portuguese anyway. Also, there's the precident of the sale of the Malaku Is. and a sort of "escape clause" in there. All this says to me that the treaty was very much open to negotiation and I think the sale of the Philippines to Portugual is perfectly plausible as early as the late 16th C should a real reason arise. A desperate Spain in need of cash (a constant feature of the Spanish Empire, IIRC), particularly in a world where the Phils lose any real value to Spain as per Shurik's thought, would IMO be willing to consider the sale.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_Philippines_(1521–1898)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_of_Zaragoza_(1529)



To the OP so as to not thread-jack, perhaps the Spanish-American War never happens, perhaps the US purchases Cuba à la Ostend Manifesto, and later Spain realizes that the Philiphines are a financial drain on the empire and decide to focus closer to home vis-à-vis Morocco, Spanish Sahara & Guinea. Germany is still an imperial power looking for new territory as part of 'her place in the sun,' so she purchases the former Spanish East Indies not only as a land grab but also to connect German colonial territory (German New Guinea to Tsingta & Tianjin). Though both Britain and France likely try to derail the deal, I imagine it goes through. Then Japan captures it in an alt-WWI.

This.
 
Douglas, no, uninhabited islands which lost all value once the genuine colonies(Philipines, Guam, etc) were forfeit do not count.

The islands of Micronesia are not uninhabited, and haven't been for recorded history. This is yet another factual error of yours.

Since Spain never under any circumstances agreed to sell any of the colonies to another nation...

As the Spanish possessions in Micronesia were in fact colonies, and were in fact sold to Germany, in *any* circumstances, and you've been wrong twice now in consecutive responses, I trust I will get an apology? Or will you backtrack yet again to prevent the horror of admitting you were wrong on the internet?
 
As the Spanish possessions in Micronesia were in fact colonies, and were in fact sold to Germany, in *any* circumstances

Said circunstance, being, that those islands were worthless without the Philippines.

Circunstance that does not apply to the Philippines, for obvious reasons.
 
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